Bernoulli Differential Equations

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving Bernoulli differential equations, specifically the case where n=1, which simplifies the equation to a linear form. The user explores the use of an integrating factor, Ω(x) = e^{\int (p + g)(x) dx}, to solve the equation. The conclusion drawn is that while Ω(x)y = 0 suggests y = 0, it actually leads to the general solution y = c/Ω(x), where c is a constant. This confirms that Bernoulli equations with n=1 can indeed be solved using integrating factors.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Bernoulli differential equations
  • Knowledge of integrating factors in differential equations
  • Familiarity with the concept of linear equations
  • Basic calculus, particularly integration techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of integrating factors for linear differential equations
  • Explore the general solution of Bernoulli differential equations with n ≠ 1
  • Learn about the applications of Bernoulli equations in real-world scenarios
  • Investigate numerical methods for solving differential equations
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, educators, and professionals in fields requiring differential equations, particularly those focusing on engineering, physics, and applied mathematics.

TranscendArcu
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Suppose I have a Bernoulli differential equation; that is, an equation of the form: y' + p(x)y = g(x) y^n. Supposing that I let n=1, the equation is linear. Can I solve it by constructing an integrating factor? That is, can I observe:

y' + p(x)y = g(x) y
→ y' + y[(p + g)(x)] = 0. I would then have,
Ω(x) = e^{\int (p + g)(x) dx} and multiplying through,
Ω(x)y' + Ω(x)y[(p + g)(x)] = 0
→ (Ω(x)y)' = 0 → Ω(x)y = 0

But, this seems to be leading me to the conclusion that y = 0. Is that right or have I done something wrong? Is it possible to solve a Bernoulli equation with n=1 by constructing an integrating factor?
 
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TranscendArcu said:
Suppose I have a Bernoulli differential equation; that is, an equation of the form: y' + p(x)y = g(x) y^n. Supposing that I let n=1, the equation is linear. Can I solve it by constructing an integrating factor? That is, can I observe:

y' + p(x)y = g(x) y
→ y' + y[(p + g)(x)] = 0. I would then have,
Ω(x) = e^{\int (p + g)(x) dx} and multiplying through,
Ω(x)y' + Ω(x)y[(p + g)(x)] = 0
→ (Ω(x)y)' = 0 → Ω(x)y = 0

But, this seems to be leading me to the conclusion that y = 0. Is that right or have I done something wrong? Is it possible to solve a Bernoulli equation with n=1 by constructing an integrating factor?

F'(x) = 0 does not imply F(x) = 0; it implies F(x) = constant.

RGV
 
Oh! So that must mean I have Ω(x)y = c. This implies y = \frac{c}{Ω(x)}. Not so?
 

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