Bijective & continuous -> differentiable?

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SUMMARY

A bijective continuous function defined on the interval [a,b] does not necessarily imply differentiability. The discussion highlights the function f(x) defined as f(x) = x for 0 ≤ x < 1 and f(x) = 2x - 1 for 1 ≤ x ≤ 2, which serves as a counter-example demonstrating that such a function can be continuous and bijective while being non-differentiable at specific points, such as x=1. The intermediate value theorem supports the continuity aspect, while the concept of measure zero indicates that non-differentiability can occur at a finite or countable set of points. Additional references to Lebesgue's decomposition theorem and the Cantor function illustrate the complexity of differentiability in continuous bijections.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of bijective functions
  • Familiarity with continuity and the intermediate value theorem
  • Knowledge of differentiability and measure theory
  • Concepts of Lebesgue's decomposition theorem and singular measures
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of bijective functions in calculus
  • Learn about the intermediate value theorem and its implications
  • Explore measure theory, focusing on sets of measure zero
  • Investigate the Cantor function and its differentiability characteristics
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Mathematicians, calculus students, and anyone interested in the properties of continuous functions, differentiability, and measure theory will benefit from this discussion.

lolgarithms
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Is a bijective continuous function:[a,b]->[f(a),f(b)] differentiable?
I think it has to be.
continuity between two distinct values of f(a) and f(b): it got to take all the values between f(a) and f(b) at x in [a,b], by the intermediate value theorem.
if f is bijective, at [a,b], f(x) can't go up and then down at [a,b]. it has to be monotonically increasing for it to be bijective.
so a function can only be non-differentiable at a set of points of measure zero. (like the vertical tangent of f(x)=x^1/3 at 0)
 
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The function f defined by:
f(x) = x when 0 <= x <= 1
f(x) = 2x - 1 when 1 <= x <= 2
on [0, 2] is a counter-example to the original statement "bijective & continuous => differentiable".

I suspect you can use this even to make a continuous bijection that is differentiable only on a set of measure zero, by taking a monotonously increasing function like above, of which the slope increases at every non-rational number.
 
lolgarithms said:
Is a bijective continuous function:[a,b]->[f(a),f(b)] differentiable?
I think it has to be.
continuity between two distinct values of f(a) and f(b): it got to take all the values between f(a) and f(b) at x in [a,b], by the intermediate value theorem.
if f is bijective, at [a,b], f(x) can't go up and then down at [a,b]. it has to be monotonically increasing for it to be bijective.
so a function can only be non-differentiable at a set of points of measure zero. (like the vertical tangent of f(x)=x^1/3 at 0)
Consider y(x)= x if 0\le x&lt; 1, 2x if 1\le x\le 2. That is a bijective from [0, 2] to [0, 4] and is continuous. It is NOT differentiable at x=1.
 
HallsofIvy said:
Consider y(x)= x if 0\le x&lt; 1, 2x if 1\le x\le 2. That is a bijective from [0, 2] to [0, 4] and is continuous. It is NOT differentiable at x=1.
It's not continuous, it has a jump at x = 1. If you shift it down by 1, like I did in my example, it works out.
 
i mean... differentiable at all but a "small" (smaller than a real interval) set of points
like a finite set - like the one compuchip mentioned
 
First, I can think of a continuous bijection that fails to be differentiable on an uncountable set of measure zero, viz. the Cantor set. It is

f(x) = x + c(x)​

where c(x) is the Cantor function.

Second, that Wikipedia article links to Minkowski's question mark function, which is claimed to have a zero derivative on the rationals but is not differentiable on the irrationals.
 
the question mark function -
ouch, i was wrong!
 

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