russ_watters
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You originally said this: "the unlawful use of force and violence . . .to intimidate or coerce a government . . . in furtherance of political or social objectives."klimatos said:I was quoting from Wikipedia, which itself did not include the entire statement. Here is the Wiki quote:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Definitions_of_terrorism#United_States_Code_.28U.S.C..29
"The US Code of Federal Regulations defines terrorism as "...the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives" (28 C.F.R. Section 0.85)."
It turns out that Wiki's reference to Section 0.85 is erroneous. Section 0.85 has nothing to do with terrorism.
As to my "overinterpretation", I fear that you must be more specific.
The missing pieces speak to who the definition applies to. In other words, it's against the government or people or their property. It does not apply to military-on-military fighting, so such military actions don't qualify as terrorism. That disqualifies the Libyan rebels and George Washington from being terrorists for such actions.
Caveat: There may well be some Libyan rebels engaging in terrorism (I haven't heard of any, but it is possible), but by and large, they appear to be a fairly basic rebel force.