Bounded integrable periodic function

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of a bounded Lebesgue measurable periodic function \( g(x) \) and its interaction with Lebesgue integrable functions \( f \). Participants explore the limit of the integral involving \( g(nx) \) as \( n \) approaches infinity, aiming to establish a relationship with the average value of \( g \) over one period.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a limit involving the integral of \( f(x)g(nx) \) and suggests a method to approach the problem.
  • Another participant proposes using the periodicity of \( g \) to simplify the integral, indicating that the integral over shorter intervals will capture the behavior of \( g \).
  • A participant outlines their steps to solve the problem, including a change of variables and Riemann integration, expressing satisfaction with the solution process.
  • One participant challenges the reliance on Riemann integration, emphasizing that the original problem specifies Lebesgue integrability for \( f \).
  • Another participant agrees with the challenge but expresses uncertainty about their own knowledge of the subject.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the appropriateness of using Riemann integration in the context of Lebesgue integrable functions. There is no consensus on whether the approach taken is valid.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the distinction between Riemann and Lebesgue integrability, with one suggesting that continuous functions can be used to extend results to Lebesgue integrable functions. However, the implications of this extension remain unresolved.

mesarmath
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hi,
i have a hard problem, i guess so,
i am looking for any help
Code:
g(x) is a bounded Lebesgue measurable function that is periodic
i.e.  [tex]g(x)=g(x+p)[/tex]. Then for every [tex]f \in L^1(\Re)[/tex]

[tex]lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\int_{\Re}f(x)g(nx) dx=(\int_{\Re}f(x)dx)((1/p){\int_{0}^{p}g(x) dx)[/tex]

thanks for any help
 
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You can use the fact that g(nx+p)=g(n(x+p/n)). Therefore the integral over shorter and shorter intervals will contain a full cycle of g leading to the result described. I'll let you work out the details.
 
after 4 hours working :)
i solved , here the steps
1-) change of u=nx and as n goes to infty [-n,n] goes to whole space
2-) after some operations and by dividing [-n,n] into 2n/p equal pieces with length p/n
3-) then again change of u=t+ip-p where -n^2/p < i < n^2/p,
4-) by riemann integration as n goes to infinity, we get right hand side

that was real fun to solve it
if i can't solve , then it becomes a huge pain :)
 
The main quibble I have with your approach is that the original problem was in terms of f being Lebesgue integrable, not Riemann.
 
mathman said:
The main quibble I have with your approach is that the original problem was in terms of f being Lebesgue integrable, not Riemann.

the set of continuous functions is dense in the set of Lebesgue integrable functions

So when we do the problem for a continuous function (i.e. riemann integrable)
we can extend it to any lebesgue integrable function.

am i wrong?
 
I'm pretty rusty on the subject, but you are probably right.
 

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