Graduate Calculate a tensor as the sum of gradients and compute a surface integral

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The discussion focuses on calculating the stress tensor defined as the sum of gradients of a vector field and computing a surface integral over a sphere. The stress tensor is derived from the vector field, resulting in a specific expression for ##\vec{\Pi}##. The user seeks clarification on why their surface integral calculation yields a non-zero result, despite expectations that it should equal zero. Responses indicate that the misunderstanding lies in the treatment of the cross-product's direction and magnitude, emphasizing the need to account for the full vector nature of the calculation. The conversation highlights the importance of correctly applying vector operations in integral calculations.
Salmone
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I am trying to compute the stress tensor defined as ##\vec{\Pi}=\eta(\nabla{\vec{u}}+\nabla{\vec{u}}^T)## where ##T## indicates the transpose.

The vector field ##\vec{u}## is defined as follows: ##\vec{u}(\vec{r})=(\frac{a}{r})^3(\vec{\omega} \times \vec{r})## with ##a## being a constant, ##\eta## being a constant, ##\vec{r}## a position vector and ##\omega## the angular speed constant in modulus.

Doing calculations I've obtained ##\vec{\Pi}=-\frac{6\eta a^3}{r^4}\hat{r}(\vec{\omega} \times \vec{r})## with ##\hat{r}## being a unit vector.

First is this result right?

Then I want to compute a surface integral: I wanna compute ##\int_S\vec{\Pi} \cdot d\vec{S}## over a sphere of radius ##R>0## with ##d\vec{S}## being ##r^2sin(\theta)d\theta d\phi \hat{r}##.

##\hat{r}## point in the same direction of the radius of the sphere over which I'm integrating.

To do this I thought to compute the dot product as ##-\frac{6\eta a^3}{r^4}(\vec{\omega} \times \vec{r})\hat{r} \cdot \hat{r}r^2sin(\theta)d\theta d\phi=-\frac{6\eta a^3}{r^4}(\vec{\omega} \times \vec{r}) r^2sin(\theta)d\theta d\phi## then ##\vec{\omega} \times \vec{r}=\omega rsin(\theta)## and the integral becomes ##-\frac{6\eta a^3}{r}\omega\int_0^{2\pi}d\phi\int_0^{\pi}d\theta sin^2(\theta)## but this integral should be equal to zero.

Where am I wrong?
 
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Your integral is f(r)r^2 \int_0^{\pi} \sin \theta \int_0^{2\pi} (\vec \omega \times \vec r)\,d\phi\,d\theta. Without loss of generality, you can assume \hat\omega = \omega \hat z. Then \vec \omega \times \vec r = \omega(x \hat y - y \hat x). Integrating either x = r \cos \phi \sin \theta or y = r \sin \phi \sin \theta over a full period of \phi gives zero.
 
pasmith said:
Your integral is f(r)r^2 \int_0^{\pi} \sin \theta \int_0^{2\pi} (\vec \omega \times \vec r)\,d\phi\,d\theta. Without loss of generality, you can assume \hat\omega = \omega \hat z. Then \vec \omega \times \vec r = \omega(x \hat y - y \hat x). Integrating either x = r \cos \phi \sin \theta or y = r \sin \phi \sin \theta over a full period of \phi gives zero.
Sorry I really don't understand your answer. However, if I didn't nothing wrong, why my integral is different from zero? What's wrong with it?
 
Your error is in stating that \vec \omega \times \vec r = r \omega \sin \theta. That deals with the magnitude of the cross-product, but not its direction; that must also depend on \phi.

EDIT: Even the magnitude is only correct when \sin \theta \geq 0; outside of this range you must multiply by -1 to get the magnitude.
 
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