Let $\displaystyle I(m,n) = \int_0^1 \! x^m(1-x)^n \, dx$.
We have, for $n \ge 1$,
\[ \begin{eqnarray}
I(m,n) &=& \left. -\frac{x^{m+1}(1-x)^n}{m+1}\right]_0^1 + \int_0^1 \frac{n}{m+1}x^{m+1}(1-x)^{n-1} \, dx \nonumber \\
&=& \frac{n}{m+1}I(m+1,n-1) \nonumber
\end{eqnarray}\]
Repeating this gives us
\[ \begin{eqnarray}
I(m,n) &=& \frac{n}{m+1}\cdot\frac{n-1}{m+2}\cdot\cdots\cdot\frac{1}{m+n}I(m+n,0) \nonumber \\
&=& \frac{n!}{\frac{(m+n)!}{m!}}\cdot\frac{1}{m+n+1} \nonumber \\
&=& \frac{1}{m+n+1}\cdot\frac{1}{\binom{m+n}{m}} \nonumber
\end{eqnarray} \]
Now Put $m=2014$ and $n=2014$
So $\displaystyle I(2014,2014) = \int_{0}^{1}x^{2014}\cdot (1-x)^{2014}dx = \frac{1}{2014+2014+1}\cdot \frac{1}{\binom{2014+2014}{2014}} = \frac{1}{4029}\cdot \frac{1}{\binom{4028}{2014}}$