Calculating Angular Velocity with Moment of Inertia & Torque

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A disc with a moment of inertia of 23.4 kg m² is rotated by a torque, starting from rest and achieving a kinetic energy of 632.2 J after a certain time. To find the angular velocity, the equation KE = 0.5 * I * ω² can be used, where ω is the angular velocity. While the discussion touches on the concept of torque, it clarifies that torque is a real force that causes rotation, not just an imagined concept. The relationship between angular momentum, moment of inertia, and angular velocity is established, emphasizing that angular momentum can be calculated using the formula: angular momentum = moment of inertia * angular velocity. Overall, the conversation aims to clarify misconceptions about torque and its role in rotational dynamics.
kingyof2thejring
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A disc of moment of inertia 23.4 kg m2 is made to rotate about an axis through its centre by a torque of T . The disc starts from rest, and after {t} s has kinetic energy 632.2 J. Calculate the angular velocity (in rad s-1) after {b} s.

if i work out the angular velocity from the KE=0.5*I*w^2 this equation how do i use it work out the angular momentum from t to b.
 
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The problem doesn't actually ask for angular momentum, but you should be able to figure out the angular momentum from the moment of interia, and the angular velocity.
 
I have a doubt. Does something called as torque energy really exist. I have understood that torque is something imagined and does not actually exist fromthe explanation given to me on the post "right hand rule" in Gen Phys. Someone please explain.
 
What you are calling "torque energy" is just rotational kinetic energy. Why in the world would you think that torque is just something "imagined"?
 
I interpreted that right hand rule can be replaced by lefthand rule, so the direction of things like torque isn't fixed. It is just a convention. Anyway the explanation wasn't clear to me. The above reasons led me to the conclusion that the torque is just something imagined and does not really exist. I understood that I am through a wrong way. Please direct me in proper way.
 
vaishakh:
Direction of a torque may be defined in a conventional way but that doesn't mean it doesn't exist. Torques are just turning forces (or coupled linear forces). Have you never seen anything turn or rotate? (rhetorical question). Of course torques exist.

kingyof2thejring:
ang momentum = moment of inertia * ang velocity
(you have everything you need for the calculation)
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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