Calculating Equilibrium Position for a Particle with Given Potential Energy V(x)

  • Thread starter Thread starter square_imp
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Potential
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a particle of mass m moving along the positive x-axis with a potential energy function V(x) = C + x^2 + 4/(x^2), where C is a positive constant. The objective is to determine the equilibrium position X0 of the particle.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the concept of equilibrium in relation to potential energy, questioning whether equilibrium occurs at zero potential energy. There is exploration of the relationship between potential energy and resultant force, with some participants suggesting that equilibrium is characterized by zero force acting on the particle.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of equilibrium and the mathematical relationships involved. Some guidance has been provided regarding the use of derivatives to relate potential energy to force, but there is no explicit consensus on the approach to finding the equilibrium position.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the implications of the constant C in the potential energy equation and how it affects the equilibrium position. There is also a focus on the nature of conservative versus non-conservative forces and their relationship to potential energy.

square_imp
Messages
21
Reaction score
0
My problem is a question stated as follows:

A particle of mass m moves along the positive x-axis with a potential energy given by

V(x) = C + x^2 + 4/(x^2)

where C is a positive constant.

Calculate the equilibrium position X0 of the particle.

Now, I so far have considered that the equilibrium position is where the potential energy is zero, however I do not know how to solve for:

C + x^2 + 4/(x^2) = 0

without knowing the value for the constant C.

Is my reasoning correct that the particle is in equilibrium when the potential energy is zero?

Any help is much appreciated
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Why should a position with zero potential energy be an equilibrium??

What dynamical feature characterizes objects at rest (or in uniform motion)?
 
I guess that there is no resultant force acting on the object. The problem now is therefore the relationship between the potential energy at distance (x) and the resultant force on the particle. How do i find that relationship?
 
square_imp said:
I guess that there is no resultant force acting on the object. The problem now is therefore the relationship between the potential energy at distance (x) and the resultant force on the particle. How do i find that relationship?
How is potential energy related to the force that "provides" the potential energy?
 
The basic relationship is Force x Distance = Potential Energy. Is it then the case in this question that the particle is in equilibrium when that force is zero? So the expression for Potential energy divided by distance (x) gives an expression for that force?
 
square_imp said:
The basic relationship is Force x Distance = Potential Energy. Is it then the case in this question that the particle is in equilibrium when that force is zero? So the expression for Potential energy divided by distance (x) gives an expression for that force?
Sort of, but:
You HAVE learned about derivatives, right?
 
Yes, but I can't really see the application here, can you explain it a bit more please? To differentiate the expression for Potential Energy w.r.t distance (x). I think I know the mthod now;

d (P.E)/dx gives 2x - 8/x as the expression for force

Now the particle is at rest (equilibrium) when the force is zero

so solving 2x - 8/x = 0 gives x =2

I think this is right but can you explain why the differentiation w.r.t distance is neccesary in this case?
 
Do you know what a "conservative force" is?

How is energy conservation derived from Newton's laws of motion?
 
If a force is conservative then the work done by that force over a distance is stored as potential energy. It is also independent of the path taken whereas work done by a non-conservative force is independent on the path. As the particle moves along the path of the x-axis the work done by the force is stored as potential energy which is defined by the given expression. This means that the potential energy is a cumulative effect of work done by the force over distance. Therefore a differential over distance shows how the accumulation occurs over distance and where this accumulation is zero the resultant force must also be zero. Now if the force was a non-conservative force then the differential of energy over distance could be zero with a resultant force still acting, correct? As the work done by the force does not add to the potential energy of the particle?
 
  • #10
Well, seems you have some idea about it, so I'll end it by stating that given a potential V(x), the force F acting upon the particle due to this potential is:
[tex]F=-\frac{dV}{dx}[/tex]

I'm sure you've seen this; use it for what it's worth.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
934
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
993
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
25
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
885
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K