Calculating Limit at x=a: Not Equivalent?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the concept of limits in calculus, specifically the limit of the function Lim x->1 [(x^2 - 1)/(x-1)]. It highlights that while the limit can be calculated as 2 by simplifying to Lim x->1 [(x+1)], the original function is undefined at x=1 due to the indeterminate form 0/0. The simplification process assumes x is not equal to 1, which is crucial for maintaining the function's definition. This illustrates the importance of understanding the conditions under which mathematical operations are valid.

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Shaybay92
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When using direct substitution to calculate the limit at x = a some functions are simplified so that x = a is actually defined. For example:

Lim x->1 [(x^2 - 1)/(x-1)]

Limx->1 [(x-1)(x+1)/(x-1)]

Lim x->1 [(x+1)] = 2 (when x=1 is substituted in)

I understand that they can have the same limits despite not both being defined at x=1, however, what I don't get is why the original f(x) isn't defined, but the second one is. How can two equivalent functions not be defined at the same points? Can't all functions be simplified by factorising without jeapordizing where they are actually defined? This makes no sense to me...
 
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When you made that simplification, you assumed that \frac{x-1}{x-1}=1. That's only true when x\ne1. When x=1, it's not a valid operation, which is why the behavior of the function is changed there.
 
\frac{x^2- 1}{x- 1} is not defined at x= 1 because \frac{0}{0} is not defined.
 

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