Calculating Limits for Scientists

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating a limit related to integrals and trigonometric functions, with participants exploring various methods and approaches to solve the problem. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and technical explanations.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses difficulty in calculating a limit and requests assistance.
  • Another participant suggests that posting the expression in LaTeX would be more efficient than using attachments.
  • A participant proposes a method involving integrals and uniform convergence, concluding that the limit approaches zero.
  • Some participants recommend using a substitution \( u = 1/n \) and applying l'Hôpital's rule as a straightforward approach.
  • Another participant interprets the limit geometrically in terms of the areas of circumscribed and inscribed regular n-gons.
  • One participant suggests using Taylor expansions for trigonometric functions to simplify the limit calculation.
  • A participant presents a formula involving trigonometric functions and limits but does not provide a definitive conclusion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants present multiple approaches and methods for calculating the limit, indicating that there is no consensus on a single method or solution. Various interpretations and techniques are discussed without resolution.

Contextual Notes

Some methods rely on assumptions about uniform convergence and the applicability of l'Hôpital's rule, which may not be universally accepted or verified within the discussion.

LucasGB
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Hello guys. I'm trying to create a formula here, and I got stuck at this step, where I have to calculate the following limit (see attachment). I have no idea how to do this. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks a lot.
 

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Attachments require approval before being accessible, so we can't see it just yet. For future reference, it would be quicker if you uploaded a picture of it which doesn't require approval by a mod.
 
Simplest and fastest approach is to post the expression in Latex.
 
I think this may lead to a correct answer:

Notice that for [tex]n > 2[/tex]

[tex]\int_0^\pi \csc^2(\frac{x}{n})-1dx = n\tan (\frac{\pi}{n})-\pi[/tex]

and that,

[tex]\int_{0}^{2\pi}\cos(\frac{x}{n})-1dx=n\sin(\frac{2\pi}{n})-2\pi[/tex].

Finally, I am pretty sure that the integrands in the above converge uniformly as [tex]n\rightarrow\infty[/tex], although you should check it.

Therefore,

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \int_{0}^{2\pi}\cos(\frac{x}{n})-1dx = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \cos(\frac{x}{n})-1dx = \int_{0}^{2\pi} 0 dx = 0[/tex]Hope that helps.
 
The easiest way would probably be to use a substitution u = 1/n, then use l'Hôpital's rule.
 
Bohrok said:
The easiest way would probably be to use a substitution u = 1/n, then use l'Hôpital's rule.

That substitution is particularly good because it can by done in your head and then the Taylor expansion of sin and tan can be done by inspection and the answer is clear. It's "good practice" (using both definitions of the term) to verify it with l'Hôpital's rule, however.
 
We can interpret the limit geometrically as the difference in the area of a regular n-gon that circumscribes the unit circle and the area of a regular n-gon inscribed inside that circle.
 
Use Taylor up to second order.
[tex]\tan{\frac{\pi}{n}}=\frac{\pi}{n}+\frac{1}{3}\left(\frac{\pi}{n}\right)^3[/tex]
[tex]\sin{\frac{2\pi}{n}}=\frac{2\pi}{n}-\frac{1}{3!}\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}\right)^3[/tex]
Your limit is 0.
 
n[tan(pi/n)-(1/2)sin(2pi/n)]=pi[sin(pi/n)/(pi/n)]csc(pi/n)[sin(pi/n)]^2
 
  • #10
Thank you very much for all the help, you guys are great!
 

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