Calculus derivative of given function vanishes at some point between a and b

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that the derivative of the function f(x) = (x-a)m (x-b)n vanishes at some point between a and b, where m and n are positive integers. The focus includes mathematical reasoning and the application of calculus concepts.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the function and its derivative, attempting to show that the derivative vanishes between a and b.
  • Another participant suggests re-writing the expression m(x-b) + n(x-a) as a parametrization to find a solution between 0 and 1.
  • A participant questions the application of the mean value theorem and expresses confusion about how it relates to showing the derivative vanishes.
  • Another participant asserts that since m and n are positive, the derivative f'(x) is continuous, implying that discontinuities are not a concern.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the application of the mean value theorem and the continuity of the derivative. There is no consensus on the best approach to demonstrate that the derivative vanishes.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the behavior of the function and its derivative are not fully explored, particularly regarding the implications of continuity and the specific conditions under which the derivative vanishes.

tachyon_man
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Question: Show that the derivative of f(x) = (x-a)m (x-b)n vanishes at some point between a and b if m and n are positive integers.
My attempt:
f(x) = (x-a)m (x-b)n
f '(x) = m(x-a)m-1 (x-b)n + n(x-a)m (x-b)n-1
f '(x) = [(x-a)n-1 (x-b)n-1 ] [(m)(x-b) +(n)(x-a)]
And this is as far as I got.
 
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Hey kylem1994 and welcome to the forums.

Try re-writing m(x-b) + n(x-a) as a parametrization where a corresponds to t = 0 and b corresponds to t = 1 and show that there is a solution of t in between 0 and 1 where this whole term equals 0 after a re-parameterization.
 
So you're saying use the mean value theorem? I'm confused on how that would show that there's a point where the derivative 'vanishes'. What I'm thinking its its a discontinuous graph at a certain point but just proving it is tough.
 
If m and n are positive, you won't need to worry about discontinuities since f'(x) is continuous (and you can show that each factor is continuous then the product is also continuous).
 

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