MHB Can a Minimal Element in a Totally Ordered Set be Considered the Least?

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In a totally ordered set (A,<), a minimal element a is defined such that for all x in A, if x ≤ a, then x must equal a. The goal is to demonstrate that a is also the least element, meaning for all x in A, a ≤ x. The discussion highlights the need to prove this first for specific cases, such as sets of numbers, before generalizing to all totally ordered sets. An example provided is the set of natural numbers, where the minimal element 0 is also the least element, confirming the proposition. The conversation emphasizes the importance of establishing a general proof for arbitrary totally ordered sets.
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

I want to show that if $(A,<)$ is a totally ordered set, then if $a$ is a minimal element of $A$ then $a$ is also the least.

$a$ is a minimal element of $A$.
That means that $(\forall x \in A)(x \leq a \rightarrow x=a)$

We want to show that $(\forall x \in A)(a \leq x)$.

Since $(A,<)$ is a totally ordered set we have that $( \forall b \in A)(\forall c \in A) (b<c \lor c<b)$.

Is it right so far? (Thinking)

How could we continue in order to show that $(\forall x \in A)(a \leq x)$? :confused:
 
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evinda said:
I want to show that if $(A,<)$ is a totally ordered set, then if $a$ is a minimal element of $A$ then $a$ is also the least.

$a$ is a minimal element of $A$.
That means that $(\forall x \in A)(x \leq a \rightarrow x=a)$

We want to show that $(\forall x \in A)(a \leq x)$.

Since $(A,<)$ is a totally ordered set we have that $( \forall b \in A)(\forall c \in A) (b<c \lor c<b)$.

Is it right so far?
In the second last line, $b$ and $c$ can be equal. Otherwise, yes, it is correct.

evinda said:
How could we continue in order to show that $(\forall x \in A)(a \leq x)$?
Prove this when $A$ is a set of numbers, then generalize to arbitrary totally ordered sets.
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
In the second last line, $b$ and $c$ can be equal. Otherwise, yes, it is correct.
Oh yes, right! (Nod)

Evgeny.Makarov said:
Prove this when $A$ is a set of numbers, then generalize to arbitrary totally ordered sets.

So we could pick for example $A=n \in \omega$ and consider the relation $(A,\subset)$, right?

$$n=\{0,1,2, \dots,n-1\}$$

We see that the minimal element is $0=\varnothing$ since there is no element $b\in \text{ family of subsets of n}$ such that $b \subsetneq 0$.
This element is also the least since $\forall m \in \text{ family of subsets of n}$ it holds that $\varnothing \subset m$, right? (Thinking)So in this case the proposition holds. But how could we generalize it to arbitrary ordered sets? (Thinking)
 
Greetings, I am studying probability theory [non-measure theory] from a textbook. I stumbled to the topic stating that Cauchy Distribution has no moments. It was not proved, and I tried working it via direct calculation of the improper integral of E[X^n] for the case n=1. Anyhow, I wanted to generalize this without success. I stumbled upon this thread here: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-to-prove-the-cauchy-distribution-has-no-moments.992416/ I really enjoyed the proof...

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