ImaLooser
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nazarbaz said:Something seems to elude most posts : the very existence of capitalism is related to the scarcity of natural resources. That's why "capitals" are not equally distributed in society for the classical theory of economics.
I suppose that is true. If there were unlimited, easily available natural resources then there would be no need to produce anything. There would be no means of production at all. So there would be no issue as to the ownership to the non-existent means of production.