Can Limits to Infinity Prove a Zero Derivative Over the Reals?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between limits to infinity and the derivative of a function over the reals. Participants explore whether proving that the limits of a function approach zero can lead to the conclusion that its derivative is also zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that if the limits of a function \( f(g(t)) \) as \( t \) approaches both positive and negative infinity are zero, it might imply that the derivative \( \frac{df}{dt} \) is zero over the reals.
  • Another participant questions the clarity of the original question and requests additional context to understand the premise better.
  • A further response indicates that the original poster is attempting to connect the convergence of the curvature function to the convergence of the derivative with respect to time, suggesting a need to prove that the integral of the curvature function converges to a constant.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the original question's validity, as some participants express confusion and seek clarification, indicating a lack of agreement on the foundational assumptions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the discussion may depend on the definitions of curvature and the properties of continuous functions, which remain unspecified. The mathematical steps leading to the proposed conclusions are also not fully resolved.

JPBenowitz
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Suppose I have

limt[itex]\rightarrow∞[/itex] f(g(t)) = 0

and

limt[itex]\rightarrow-∞[/itex] f(g(t)) = 0

How would I prove [itex]\frac{df}{dt}[/itex][itex]_{|}\Re[/itex] = 0? (over the reals)
 
Last edited:
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This question doesn't make sense. Could you provide some context?
 
theorem4.5.9 said:
This question doesn't make sense. Could you provide some context?

I'm having problems displaying what I want to convey. Basically I proved that the limit for the curvature function will always converge to zero for any real continuous function and now I want to prove that the derivative with respect to time will always converge to zero.

So, essentially I need to prove that the integral over the reals of the curvature function will always converge to some constant.
 
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