brru25 Messages 29 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Oct 26, 2009 #1 Is it possible for m = n+1 if there exists u1, ..., um in Rn such that the distance between ui and uj is 1 for any 1 <= i < j <= n?
Is it possible for m = n+1 if there exists u1, ..., um in Rn such that the distance between ui and uj is 1 for any 1 <= i < j <= n?
lanedance Homework Helper Messages 3,304 Reaction score 2 Oct 26, 2009 #2 have a think about the vectors (1,0) & (2,0) of course things might be different if your vectors ui were of a set length, say 1
have a think about the vectors (1,0) & (2,0) of course things might be different if your vectors ui were of a set length, say 1