A Can Newton's Method Solve Freer Motion?

  • A
  • Thread starter Thread starter Juli
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Lagrange Newton
AI Thread Summary
Newton's method can be used to solve equations of motion even in cases of free motion, contrary to the assumption that Lagrangian mechanics is necessary. Lagrange formulations, whether with constraints or generalized coordinates, are applicable to unconstrained systems and may simplify the derivation of constants of motion. The main challenge arises when dissipative forces, such as friction, are present, which complicates the equations of motion. The discussion clarifies that the ability to solve these equations is not inherently tied to the choice of theoretical framework. Ultimately, both Newton's and Lagrangian methods have their merits depending on the specific conditions of the motion being analyzed.
Juli
Messages
24
Reaction score
6
Hello everyone,

my question is, if there is a case, where you can't you Langrange (1 or 2) but only Newton to solve the equation of motion?
My guess is, that it might be, when we have no restrictions at all, so a totally free motion.
Does anybody know?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
What do you mean by Lagrange 1 and 2? That does not seem like standard nomenclature to me. Please be specific.

Generally, the equations of motion are differential equations and whether they can be solved or not does not depend on the theory you used to derive them. Where you could fail is in arriving at a set of equations of motion.
 
Last edited:
Usually "Lagrange 1" is the formulation with the (holonomic) constraints treated with Lagrange multipliers, while "Lagrange 2" is the formulation in terms of an appropriate set of "generalized coordinates".
 
Regardless, it should probably be pointed out that Lagrange mechanics is perfectly applicable to systems without constraints. It could even be argued it does better in ease of deriving constants of motion etc. Where you can run into issues is when there are dissipative forces (eg, friction) acting on the system.
 
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
Back
Top