Can Rest Energy be Derived from the Stress-Energy Tensor?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter snoopies622
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Energy Rest
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the derivation of rest energy from the stress-energy tensor, particularly in relation to the equation E=mc². Participants explore whether this derivation can be achieved through mathematical properties of the stress-energy tensor and the implications of relativity on the concept of rest energy.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants reference a claim from Hans C. Ohanian's book regarding the first error-free derivation of E=mc² by Max von Laue in 1911, based on the stress-energy tensor.
  • One participant suggests that rest energy is an assumption in relativity and cannot be proven as a physical entity, only tested experimentally.
  • Another participant proposes starting with the kinetic energy equation and noting that it implies a residual energy of m₀c² when velocity is zero.
  • A participant mentions that the relativistic kinetic energy equation is KE = (m₀/√(1-v²/c²)) - m₀c², which approaches zero as velocity approaches zero.
  • Some participants discuss the derivation of E=mc² without reference to light, suggesting it can be derived from axiomatic frameworks consistent with Newtonian physics.
  • Concerns are raised about the circular reasoning in expressing the four-momentum vector, questioning whether it assumes the time component represents total energy.
  • One participant expresses skepticism about the circularity of the argument regarding the frame-invariance of the mass-energy four-vector norm.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the derivation of rest energy and the validity of claims made in Ohanian's book. There is no consensus on whether rest energy can be derived from the stress-energy tensor or whether it is merely an assumption in relativity.

Contextual Notes

Some arguments depend on specific interpretations of relativity and the definitions of energy and mass, which remain unresolved. The discussion includes various mathematical formulations and assumptions that may not be universally accepted.

  • #31
PhilDSP said:
Einstein's 1905 paper didn't demonstrate that E = mc^2 did it? It rather demonstrated that \delta(E) = \delta(mc^2)

But it then directly follows that adding an energy of E to an object in any form will increase its mass by E/c^2. Because after the radiation is absorbed, the energy can be converted in any other form (such a transformation is irrelevant in the argument). The whole point of Einstein's reasoning is to pinpoint the reason why an object has an inertia. He shows that the intertia depends on energy and nothing else than energy. Therefore we don't need to postulate an independent physical quantity for inertia (i.e. mass) anymore. What we call mass is the same as the energy content of an object.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #32
Count Iblis said:
I think he wrote that the fact that a conserved four momentum exists at all should be derived (e.g. by assuming Lorentz invariance of the Lagrangian and then using Noether's theorem, but he doesn't elaborate, I think he only mentions that it requires a knowledge of field theory) and that simply assuming that there exists a conserved four momentum and then deriving the expression is not a rigorous argument.

I guess this is a matter of taste, then, because I see it the other way around. Writing down a Lagrangian is most likely going to boil down to making a guess based on aesthetics, looking for the simplest expression that will make sense physically. IMO the other version is much more rigorous.

Of course we don't have anything in physics that is totally equivalent to the mathematician's concept of a proof -- at least not in the kind of context we're talking about here, where we're trying to extend an old theory to be consistent with newly imposed principles. This is probably why there's so much room for disagreement, with, e.g., Einstein and Ohanian disagreeing on whether Einstein's 1905 derivation is correct.
 
  • #33
PhilDSP said:
Einstein's 1905 paper didn't demonstrate that E = mc^2 did it? It rather demonstrated that \delta(E) = \delta(mc^2)

Sorry about the strange looking equation by the way. Thanks to bcrowell's post I see now that the tex Delta argument must be capitalized.

\Delta(E) = \Delta(mc^2)
 
  • #34
Well, thanks to everyone for helping me out here. I'm still trying to understand dx's posts but he and I have started discussing them via visitor messages so this thread won't become burdened with my ignorance of the calculus of variations. I'm also still thinking about bcrowell's post #16 and I like the reasoning behind it.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
6K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K