Can the 2nd ode x*y''-c*y=0 be solved exactly?

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The second-order ordinary differential equation (ODE) given by y'' - (c/x)y = 0 can be solved exactly using series methods, specifically by expressing the solution in the form y(x) = Σa_n x^(n+r), where a_0 ≠ 0 due to the regular singular point at x = 0. The equation can also be transformed into a Bessel differential equation through a change of variables, such as u = √x. References to Bessel functions and singular points are crucial for understanding the solution's structure.

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As the tittle, can the 2nd ode (B.C not fixed, I need the general solution)

y''-c/x*y=0

be solved exactly? Or can it be translated into some
special mathphysical equations, such as Bessel?
Hypergeometric? etc

any comments or references are welcome.

Thank you for advance!
 
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Would this work?

<br /> <br /> y&#039;&#039; - \frac{cy}{x} = 0, can be rewritten as
\frac{dydy}{y} = \frac{c}{x}dxdx, which upon integrating gives
ln|y|dy = c*ln|x|dx, and then we would just have to integrate one more time?
 
I would go with a series solution, with y = c0 + c1x + c2x2 + ... + cnxn + ...
 
Mark44 said:
I would go with a series solution, with y = c0 + c1x + c2x2 + ... + cnxn + ...

Don't you need to search for a solution not from the type:

<br /> y(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}x^{n}<br />

but from the form:

<br /> y(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}x^{n+r}<br />

<br /> a_{0}\neq 0<br />

because of the singularity at x=0 ?

I don't think it is possible to find both linearly independent series' if you search the solution in the first form, I couldn't. but may be I'm rusty in the Olde ODE's :)
 
Raskolnikov said:
Would this work?

<br /> <br /> y&#039;&#039; - \frac{cy}{x} = 0, can be rewritten as
\frac{dydy}{y} = \frac{c}{x}dxdx, which upon integrating gives
ln|y|dy = c*ln|x|dx, and then we would just have to integrate one more time?
No, that is not valid.
\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\ne \frac{(dy)(dy)}{(dx)(dx)}
 
gomunkul51 said:
Don't you need to search for a solution not from the type:

<br /> y(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}x^{n}<br />

but from the form:

<br /> y(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}x^{n+r}<br />

<br /> a_{0}\neq 0<br />

because of the singularity at x=0 ?
The equation as originally given is xy'' - cy = 0, which is defined when x = 0. It is only by dividing by x that you introduce an singularity.
gomunkul51 said:
I don't think it is possible to find both linearly independent series' if you search the solution in the first form, I couldn't. but may be I'm rusty in the Olde ODE's :)
 
Thans to all of you. Your browse or reply helps me.

To this point, LCKurtz's message is the most nearest to
my need!
 
Mark44 said:
The equation as originally given is xy'' - cy = 0, which is defined when x = 0. It is only by dividing by x that you introduce an singularity.

No, this DE has a regular singular point at x = 0. gomunkul51 is correct about the form the infinite series would take. See

http://banach.millersville.edu/~bob/math365/singular.pdf

for the definition of a singular point and discussion.
 
  • #10
You might also try a change of variables to transform the differential equation into the Bessel differential equation. For instance, u=sqrt(x) gets you a differential equation that sort of looks like the Bessel differential equation.
 

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