Can the General Solution for this Exponential Equation be Found?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Heimdall
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Exponential Member
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving the second-order differential equation \(\frac{d^2f\left(x\right)}{dx^2}= A\exp\left(f\left(x\right)/B\right)\), which arises in plasma equilibrium contexts. The participants explore various methods, including substitutions and integrals, leading to expressions involving hyperbolic functions and the Gudermannian function. The final solution presented is \(f = -2B \ln\left(\cosh\left(\sqrt{\frac{A}{2B}}x\right)\right)\), applicable under the condition \(AB<0\) and \(K>0\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of second-order differential equations
  • Familiarity with hyperbolic functions and their properties
  • Knowledge of the Gudermannian function and its applications
  • Basic principles of plasma physics and equilibrium equations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study advanced techniques in solving nonlinear differential equations
  • Learn about the applications of hyperbolic functions in physics
  • Research the Gudermannian function and its significance in mathematical analysis
  • Explore plasma physics concepts related to equilibrium and stability
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers working on plasma physics, particularly those involved in modeling plasma equilibrium and solving complex differential equations.

Heimdall
Messages
38
Reaction score
0
Hello,


I'm trying to solve this equation :

\frac{d^2f\left(x\right)}{dx^2}= A\exp\left(f\left(x\right)/B\right)

(which comes from plasma equilibrium)

I can't find out what's the general solution... is there a method to solve with this kind of second member
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Well, you can make some headway as follows:
\frac{d^{2}f}{dx^{2}}f&#039;(x)=Ae^{\frac{f}{B}}f&#039;(x)\to\frac{1}{2}((f&#039;(x))^{2}-(f&#039;(x_{0}))^{2})=BA(e^{\frac{f(x)}{B}}-e^{\frac{f(x_{0})}{B}
Whereby it follows that:
f&#039;(x)^{2}=Ce^{\frac{f}{B}}+K
where C=2AB, and K depends on the values of the function and its derivative at x_{0}[/tex]<br /> <br /> There is no particular reason why this should have a simple exact solution.
 
lets say that f\left(x_0=0\right)=f&#039;\left(0\right)=0

so that we have :

f&#039;^2 = 2BA\left(\exp\left(f/B\right)-1\right)

or f&#039;^2 = 4AB\exp\left(f/2B\right)sinsh\left(f/2B\right)

I know there's a trick somewhere because the solution should be something like

log\left(cosh\left(\right)\right)
 
Last edited:
Okay, let's see:

Let:
u^{2}=e^{\frac{f}{B}}\to{2u}\frac{du}{dx}=u\frac{f&#039;}{B}\to{2Bdu}=f&#039;dx
This substitution seems very promising..
We get:
\frac{f&#039;}{\sqrt{2AB}\sqrt{e^{\frac{f}{B}}-1}}=\pm{1}
which leads to:
\sqrt{\frac{2B}{A}}\int\frac{du}{\sqrt{u^{2}-1}}=\pm{x}+C
We set u=Cosh(v), yielding:
\sqrt{\frac{2B}{A}}sgn(Sinh(v))v=\pm{x}+C
essentially yielding the result for f you mentioned; just get the signs right.
 
Last edited:
Hum,

2u\frac{du}{dx} = \frac{f&#039;}{B}e^{f/B} = \frac{f&#039;}{B}u^2

which means that

2B\frac{du}{u} = f&#039;dx

now the integral is :

\int\frac{2Bdu}{u\sqrt{u^2-1}}

and with your u = ch(v) you get

\int \frac{dv}{ch\left(v\right)}
 
Okay, made a mistake there.
 
I've looked on the web and

\int \frac{dv}{ch\left(v\right)} = gd\left(v\right)

where gd(v) is the Gudermannian function :

gd\left(v\right) = 2\arctan\left(th\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)which doesn't look nice if you come back to f
 
arildno said:
\frac{f&#039;}{\sqrt{2AB}\sqrt{e^{\frac{f}{B}}-1}}=\pm{1}


I haven't seen it the first time but you can't even do this if x=0 (because f(0)=0)
 
That need not be destructive, since f' is zero also.
You have an improper integral.
 
  • #10
Heimdall said:
Hum,

2u\frac{du}{dx} = \frac{f&#039;}{B}e^{f/B} = \frac{f&#039;}{B}u^2

which means that

2B\frac{du}{u} = f&#039;dx

now the integral is :

\int\frac{2Bdu}{u\sqrt{u^2-1}}

and with your u = ch(v) you get

\int \frac{dv}{ch\left(v\right)}
So, then we continue!

We set y=tanh(v/2)\frac{dy}{dv}=\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{Cosh^{2}(\frac{v}{2})}=\frac{1}{2}(1-y^{2})\to{dv}=\frac{2dy}{1-y^{2}}
Thereby, we get:
\int\frac{1*dv}{Cosh(v)}=\int\frac{Cosh^{2}(\frac{v}{2})-Sinh^{2}(\frac{v}{2})}{Cosh^{2}(\frac{v}{2})+Sinh^{2}(\frac{v}{2})}dv=\int\frac{1-y^{2}}{1+y^{2}}\frac{2dy}{1-y^{2}}=\int\frac{2dy}{1+y^{2}}=2arctan(y)+C
And we are essentially done. :smile:
 
Last edited:
  • #11
Heimdall said:
I've looked on the web and

\int \frac{dv}{ch\left(v\right)} = gd\left(v\right)

where gd(v) is the Gudermannian function :

gd\left(v\right) = 2\arctan\left(th\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)\right)


which doesn't look nice if you come back to f
I didn't see this post. Sorry about that.
 
  • #12
Hi :)

In the mean time I got another solution :

I = \int\frac{f&#039;dx}{\sqrt{1-\exp{\left(f/B\right)}}}

let u^2 = 1-\exp{\left(f/B\right)}

so we have :

-2Budu\frac{1}{1-u^2} = f&#039;dx

and we get :

I = -2B\int \frac{du}{1-u^2} = -2Bargth\left(u\right)

I = -2Bargth\left(\sqrt{1-\exp{\left(f/K\right)}}\right) = -\sqrt{2AB}x

\sqrt{1-\exp{\left(f/B\right)}} = th\left(\sqrt{\frac{A}{2B}x}\right)

f = -2B\ Ln\left(ch\left(\sqrt{\frac{A}{2B}}x\right)\right) :)
 
  • #13
Note that in this case, you have 1-exp beneath the square root sign; not exp-1.

That will naturally yield a totally different solution, valid whenever AB<0, K>0.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
562
  • · Replies 36 ·
2
Replies
36
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
4K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
3K