Can this be considered a proof

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof that if \( p \) is a prime number and \( k \) is an integer such that \( 0 < k < p \), then \( p \) divides \( \binom{p}{k} \). Participants analyze the expression \( \binom{p}{k} = \frac{p(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!} \) and confirm that \( b = \frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!} \) is an integer, emphasizing the necessity of \( p \) being prime. They also discuss the implications of Gauss's theorem in relation to the divisibility of binomial coefficients.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of binomial coefficients, specifically \( \binom{n}{k} \)
  • Familiarity with factorial notation and operations
  • Knowledge of prime numbers and their properties
  • Basic concepts of number theory, including divisibility and greatest common divisors
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Gauss's theorem and its applications in number theory
  • Learn about properties of binomial coefficients and their divisibility
  • Explore integer properties of factorials and their implications in combinatorial proofs
  • Investigate the significance of prime numbers in combinatorial mathematics
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of number theory, and anyone interested in combinatorial proofs and the properties of prime numbers will benefit from this discussion.

Government$
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Homework Statement


If p is a prime and k is an integer for which 0<k<p, then p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
Whne p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k} it means that \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*b.
wheren b is some number.

The Attempt at a Solution



So p is equal to some number k.

p=k
I take factorial of both sides and get
p!=k!
and multiply both sides by
\frac{1}{k!(p-k)!}
to get
\frac{p!}{k!(p-k)!}=\frac{k!}{k!(p-k)!}
Since p=k
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=\frac{p(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)(p-k)!}{k!(p-k)!}
then
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
where b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!} therefore p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Homework Statement



If n \in N then \displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n} is even i.e.
\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=2*b where b is some number

The Attempt at a Solution



\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=\frac{2n!}{n!(2n-n)!} = \frac{2n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}=2*\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!} where b=\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}
 
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Government$ said:

Homework Statement


If p is a prime and k is an integer for which 0<k<p, then p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
Whne p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k} it means that \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*b.
wheren b is some number.

The Attempt at a Solution



So p is equal to some number k.

p=k
I take factorial of both sides and get
p!=k!
and multiply both sides by
\frac{1}{k!(p-k)!}
to get
\frac{p!}{k!(p-k)!}=\frac{k!}{k!(p-k)!}
Since p=k
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=\frac{p(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)(p-k)!}{k!(p-k)!}
then
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
where b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!} therefore p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Homework Statement



If n \in N then \displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n} is even i.e.
\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=2*b where b is some number

The Attempt at a Solution



\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=\frac{2n!}{n!(2n-n)!} = \frac{2n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}=2*\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!} where b=\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}

In 1): how do you know that
b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
is an integer? Where have you used the hypothesis that p is prime?
 
Ray Vickson said:
In 1): how do you know that
b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
is an integer? Where have you used the hypothesis that p is prime?

Good points, there goes my proof in the water.:cry:
 
At the start of 1 you write p=k even though p > k...

Your proof isn't totally wrecked, you know that
\frac{ p(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
is an integer, so all you want to do is explain why, when you divide the numerator by k!, the p in the numerator is not canceled out.
 
Government$ said:
Good points, there goes my proof in the water.:cry:

Just to clarify: it is important that p be prime. For example (writing C(a,b) for "a choose b") we have that C(5,2) = 10 is divisible by 5 and C(7,3) = 35 is divisible by 7, but neither C(6,2) = 15 nor C(6,3) = 20 are divisible by 6.
 
The hypotheses say 0< k< p yet in your "proof" you say "p is equal to some number k". Surely p is equal to "some number" (why not just use "p"?) but calling it "k" and then confusing it with the "k" in the hypothesis is just "sleight of hand". I saw you pocket that card!
 
Hi,

It's a consequence of Gauss theorem.
Write ## p! = k!\ (p-k)!\ C_p^k##. You get that ##p|k!\ (p-k)!\ C_p^k##.
Show that ##\text{gcd}(p, k!\ (p-k)!) = 1 ##, and conclude ##p|C_p^k##
 

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