Can Two Sets' Supremum Equal the Product of Their Individual Supremums?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the equality sup(XY) = (supX)(supY) for two sets X and Y, where XY = {x*y: x ∈ X, y ∈ Y}. The user references the concept of supremum from real analysis, specifically in the context of Rudin's work. A counterexample is suggested involving positive and negative numbers, indicating that the equality does not hold universally.

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emob2p
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Hi,

I'm trying to prove that b^{r+s}=b^r*b^s for any real r,s where b^r = sup{b^t:t \leq r} and t is rational. (This is prob 1.6f in Rudin)

My question. Can one show that for two sets X and Y:

sup(XY)=(supX)(supY) where XY = {x*y: x\in X, y\in Y}

Thanks,
E
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Try playing with positive and negative numbers.
 
=> Counterexample very easy
 

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