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The reason I'm asking this is that the proof of the irrationality of the square root of 2 is usually presented with only one use of induction (or an equivalent technique). But the proof depends on the fact if k^2 is even, then k is even, and that fact in turn depends on the fact that the square of a number not divisible by 2 is a number not divisible by 2. And that fact is, as far as I can tell, is a result of the proposition above. (I'm open to correction on that point.) So if that proposition depended on induction, then the proof that sqrt(2) is irrational would depend on two applications of induction. (The reason that the ancient Greeks wouldn't have been aware of this is that Euclid implicitly assumes the proposition above, when he defines an odd number as "that which is not divisible into two equal parts, or that which differs by a unit from an even number".)

Any help would greatly appreciated.

Thank You in Advance.