Can You Crack This Tricky Integral Challenge?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Euge
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    2015
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral challenge presented is to evaluate the integral $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos x - \cos 2x}{x^2}\, dx.$$ The discussion highlights the lack of responses, indicating a complex problem that requires advanced calculus techniques. The solution involves applying Fourier transform methods and residue calculus to justify each step of the calculation. This integral is significant in mathematical analysis and showcases the application of trigonometric identities in improper integrals.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of improper integrals
  • Familiarity with Fourier transforms
  • Knowledge of residue theorem in complex analysis
  • Proficiency in trigonometric identities
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of the Fourier transform in evaluating integrals
  • Learn about the residue theorem and its applications in complex analysis
  • Explore advanced techniques in solving improper integrals
  • Review trigonometric identities and their role in integral calculus
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, advanced calculus students, and anyone interested in integral evaluation techniques will benefit from this discussion.

Euge
Gold Member
MHB
POTW Director
Messages
2,072
Reaction score
245
Here is this week's POTW:

-----
Evaluate the integral

$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos x - \cos 2x}{x^2}\, dx.$$

Justify the major steps of your calculation.
-----

Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No one answered this week's problem. Here is my solution.
The integral evaluates to $\pi$. First write

$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos x - \cos 2x}{x^2}\, dx = 2\int_0^\infty \frac{\cos x - \cos 2x}{x^2}\, dx = 2\int_{0}^\infty \int_1^2 \frac{\sin tx}{x}\, dt\, dx.$$

The integral $\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin tx}{x}\, dx$ converges uniformly on $[1,2]$ since it converges (to $\frac{\pi}{2}$) on $[1,2]$ and the integrand (which we assume to have value $t$ at $x = 0$) is continuous on every rectangle $[1,2] \times [0,M]$, $M > 0$. Therefore

$$2\int_0^\infty \int_1^2 \frac{\sin tx}{x}\, dt\, dx = 2\int_1^2 \int_0^\infty \frac{\sin tx}{x}\, dx\, dt = 2\int_1^2 \frac{\pi}{2}\, dt = \pi.$$
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K