- #1
ZeGato
- 35
- 28
Hello,
I don't have a background in medical research, but I was interested in understanding the conclusions of this paper: Cancer risk in 680 000 people exposed to computed tomography scans in childhood or adolescence: data linkage study of 11 million Australians
I'm not understanding a few things in the conclusion since I'm not familiar with some of the terms. In the subsection Discussion > Comparison with other studies, it says:
So I have 2 questions regarding this quote:
1. For a lag period of one (this means that the cancer incidence rate started being measured one year after the CT scan, discarding patients who were diagnosed with any type of cancer before 1 year had passed after the CT scan), the incidence rate, when compared to the unexposed patients, for all cancer, equals 24%.
If I understood correctly, this means that there is a 24% higher chance of getting cancer if a CT scan was performed one year ago, when compared to an unexposed patient with the same characteristics (age, sex, CT scan location, etc...)? Is this the same as the odds ratio?
2. Then it says "The estimated numbers of excess cancers attributable to CT scans for these three lag periods were 608, 402, and 209, respectively. These excesses were, at most, 1% of the 60 674 cancers observed to date in this cohort of 10.9 million people".
If the incidence rate is 18% to 24% higher in the exposed group compared to unexposed group, shouldn't there be 18% to 24% excess cancers due to CT scans, instead of 1% (at most)?
Thank you for any help!
I don't have a background in medical research, but I was interested in understanding the conclusions of this paper: Cancer risk in 680 000 people exposed to computed tomography scans in childhood or adolescence: data linkage study of 11 million Australians
I'm not understanding a few things in the conclusion since I'm not familiar with some of the terms. In the subsection Discussion > Comparison with other studies, it says:
For lag periods of one, five, and 10 years, the incidence rate for all cancers combined increased by 24%, 21%, and 18%, respectively, in the CT exposed group compared with the unexposed group (table 3). The estimated numbers of excess cancers attributable to CT scans for these three lag periods were 608, 402, and 209, respectively. These excesses were, at most, 1% of the 60 674 cancers observed to date in this cohort of 10.9 million people.
So I have 2 questions regarding this quote:
1. For a lag period of one (this means that the cancer incidence rate started being measured one year after the CT scan, discarding patients who were diagnosed with any type of cancer before 1 year had passed after the CT scan), the incidence rate, when compared to the unexposed patients, for all cancer, equals 24%.
If I understood correctly, this means that there is a 24% higher chance of getting cancer if a CT scan was performed one year ago, when compared to an unexposed patient with the same characteristics (age, sex, CT scan location, etc...)? Is this the same as the odds ratio?
2. Then it says "The estimated numbers of excess cancers attributable to CT scans for these three lag periods were 608, 402, and 209, respectively. These excesses were, at most, 1% of the 60 674 cancers observed to date in this cohort of 10.9 million people".
If the incidence rate is 18% to 24% higher in the exposed group compared to unexposed group, shouldn't there be 18% to 24% excess cancers due to CT scans, instead of 1% (at most)?
Thank you for any help!