Gh0stZA
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Hi everyone,
If [tex]B^A[/tex] is the set of functions mapping from [tex]A \rightarrow B = \{ 0, 1 \}[/tex], prove that [tex]|B^A| = |P(A)|[/tex], where P(A) is the power set of A.
Is it as simple as letting the mapping from B to A be denoted by [tex]\phi[/tex] and defining [tex]a_1, a_2 \in A, a_1 \ne a_2[/tex] such that [tex]\phi (a_1) = 0[/tex] and repeating that for the empty set, and [tex]\phi (a_2) = 1[/tex] and then [tex]\phi ( \{ a_1, a_2 \} ) = \{ 0, 1 \}[/tex] ?
All help appreciated.
If [tex]B^A[/tex] is the set of functions mapping from [tex]A \rightarrow B = \{ 0, 1 \}[/tex], prove that [tex]|B^A| = |P(A)|[/tex], where P(A) is the power set of A.
Is it as simple as letting the mapping from B to A be denoted by [tex]\phi[/tex] and defining [tex]a_1, a_2 \in A, a_1 \ne a_2[/tex] such that [tex]\phi (a_1) = 0[/tex] and repeating that for the empty set, and [tex]\phi (a_2) = 1[/tex] and then [tex]\phi ( \{ a_1, a_2 \} ) = \{ 0, 1 \}[/tex] ?
All help appreciated.