Then use the "vector space" proof when the vector space in question is a function space!
The "vector space" proof looks at the inner product of [itex]\vec{u}- \lambda\vec{v}[/itex] with itself, getting [itex]|\vec{u}-\lambda\vec{v}|= <\vec{u}- \lambda\vec{v},\vec{u}= \lambda\vec{v}>= <\vec{u},\vec{u}>- 2\lambda<\vec{u},\vec{v}>+ \lambda^2<\vec{v},\vec{v}>\ge 0[/itex], for all [itex]\lambda[/itex] because it is a "square".
In particular, if we let let
[tex]\lambda= \frac{<\vec{u},\vec{v}>}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}>}[/tex]
that becomes
[tex]<\vec{u},\vec{u}>-2\frac{\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}}+ \frac{\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{\vec{v},\vec{v}}[/tex]
[tex]= <\vec{u},\vec{u}>- \frac{<\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}>}\ge 0[/tex]
so
[tex]<\vec{u},\vec{u}>\ge \frac{<\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}>}[/tex]
and
[tex]<\vec{u},\vec{u}><\vec{v},\vec{v}>\ge<\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2[/tex]
That is precisely the proof for "vector spaces" at the site I linked to. Now, the set of all integrable functions IS an inner product space with innerproduct given by [itex]<f, g>= \int fg[/itex].
Replacing [itex]<\vec{u},\vec{v}>[/itex] by [itex]\int fg[/itex] , [itex]<\vec{u}, \vec{v}>[/itex] with [itex]\int f^2[/itex], and [itex]<\vec{v}, \vec{v}>[/itex] with [itex]\int g^2[/itex] gives exactly the inequality you post. That's the whole point of "abstraction" in mathematics- you don't have to prove a lot of different versions of the same thing.