Cauchy-Bunyakovsky-Schwarz inequality

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the Cauchy-Bunyakovsky-Schwarz inequality, specifically seeking a proof using integrals. Participants explore various approaches to the proof and express preferences for different methods of explanation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the inequality in integral form and requests a proof specifically using integrals.
  • Another participant suggests that understanding the inner product concept is beneficial for proving the inequality.
  • A different participant proposes examining the expression \(\int (f(x) + \lambda g(x))^2 dx\) as a method for proof.
  • Some participants express frustration with repeated requests for clarification, indicating a desire for more focused discussion on integral methods rather than vector space approaches.
  • One participant argues that the vector space proof can be adapted to function spaces, detailing a proof that leads to the desired inequality using inner product definitions.
  • There is a suggestion that the abstraction in mathematics allows for the application of general proofs to specific cases without needing to prove each version separately.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing preferences for proof methods, with some favoring integral approaches while others advocate for vector space explanations. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the preferred method of proof.

Contextual Notes

Some participants indicate limitations in their understanding of the relationship between inner products and integrals, and there is a lack of consensus on the most effective proof strategy.

phyguy321
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absolute value( [tex]\int{fg}[/tex]) [tex]\leq[/tex][([tex]\int{f}[/tex][tex]^{2}[/tex])([tex]\int{g}[/tex][tex]^{2}[/tex])][tex]^{1/2}[/tex]

all integrals are from a to b
does anyone have any idea of a proof for this?
 
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Bump? What more do you want?
 
morphism said:
Bump? What more do you want?

I don't want to solve it in terms of a vector space, I would like to see it using integrals
 
Then use the "vector space" proof when the vector space in question is a function space!

The "vector space" proof looks at the inner product of [itex]\vec{u}- \lambda\vec{v}[/itex] with itself, getting [itex]|\vec{u}-\lambda\vec{v}|= <\vec{u}- \lambda\vec{v},\vec{u}= \lambda\vec{v}>= <\vec{u},\vec{u}>- 2\lambda<\vec{u},\vec{v}>+ \lambda^2<\vec{v},\vec{v}>\ge 0[/itex], for all [itex]\lambda[/itex] because it is a "square".

In particular, if we let let
[tex]\lambda= \frac{<\vec{u},\vec{v}>}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}>}[/tex]
that becomes
[tex]<\vec{u},\vec{u}>-2\frac{\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}}+ \frac{\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{\vec{v},\vec{v}}[/tex]
[tex]= <\vec{u},\vec{u}>- \frac{<\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}>}\ge 0[/tex]
so
[tex]<\vec{u},\vec{u}>\ge \frac{<\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2}{<\vec{v},\vec{v}>}[/tex]
and
[tex]<\vec{u},\vec{u}><\vec{v},\vec{v}>\ge<\vec{u},\vec{v}>^2[/tex]

That is precisely the proof for "vector spaces" at the site I linked to. Now, the set of all integrable functions IS an inner product space with innerproduct given by [itex]<f, g>= \int fg[/itex].

Replacing [itex]<\vec{u},\vec{v}>[/itex] by [itex]\int fg[/itex] , [itex]<\vec{u}, \vec{v}>[/itex] with [itex]\int f^2[/itex], and [itex]<\vec{v}, \vec{v}>[/itex] with [itex]\int g^2[/itex] gives exactly the inequality you post. That's the whole point of "abstraction" in mathematics- you don't have to prove a lot of different versions of the same thing.
 

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