Challenge I: Concavity, solved by Millenial

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The forum discussion centers on a mathematical challenge involving a twice differentiable function, specifically proving that if the second derivative, ##f^{\prime\prime}(x)##, is non-positive, then the function satisfies the inequality ##f(x+y) \leq f(x) + f(y)## for all non-negative ##x## and ##y##. Millenial provided a comprehensive solution utilizing integral calculus and properties of decreasing functions. The discussion also highlights alternative proofs, including the concavity of the function and implications of the mean value theorem, establishing a robust understanding of the relationship between derivatives and function behavior.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of calculus, specifically derivatives and integrals.
  • Familiarity with the mean value theorem and its applications.
  • Knowledge of concave functions and their properties.
  • Ability to manipulate inequalities involving functions and their derivatives.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the mean value theorem and its implications in calculus.
  • Explore the properties of concave functions and their graphical interpretations.
  • Learn about the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem and its relevance in analysis.
  • Investigate Stoke's theorem and its various applications in mathematical analysis.
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Mathematicians, calculus students, and educators seeking to deepen their understanding of function behavior, particularly in relation to concavity and inequalities. This discussion is also beneficial for anyone interested in advanced calculus concepts and their proofs.

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Written by micromass:

I have recently posted a challenge in my signature. The challenge read as follows:

Let ##f:[0,+\infty )\rightarrow [0,+\infty )## be a twice differentiable function such that ##f(0) = 0##. Prove that if ##f^{\prime\prime}(x)\leq 0## for all ##x##, then ##f(x+y)\leq f(x) + f(y)## for all ##x## and ##y##.

The first answer I got was from Millenial. He gave the following correct solution:

Let g(x) = f'(x). Then, the question tells us that g(x) is decreasing. We are only interested in cases where x and y are greater than or equal to 0, because that's where f is defined. Define
\int^{x}_{y} g(t)\,dt = A(x,y)
Then, A(x,0) = f(x) where equality follows because f(0) = 0.

The question asks us to prove A(x,0) + A(y,0) \geq A(x+y,0). Without loss of generality, we assume x\geq y. Then, the inequality is reduced to 2A(y,0) + A(x,y) \geq A(y,0) + A(x,y) + A(x+y,x), which can be simplified to A(y,0) \geq A(x+y,x).

Using the fact that A denotes integrals, we can put lower and upper bounds on A using maxima and minima of g in the given intervals. We find that A(y,0) \geq y\cdot g(y) and A(x+y, x) \leq y\cdot g(x) because g(x) is decreasing. This means that our question is reduced to proving y\cdot g(y) \geq y\cdot g(x). Since y\geq 0 and the case where y = 0 is trivial, we may divide by y to get g(y) \geq g(x), and since x \geq y, this is equivalent to saying g is decreasing; which we already know.

This solution is very elegant. But there are other solutions. For example, we can prove the following chain of implications:

  • ##f^{\prime\prime}(x)\leq 0## for all ##x\in \mathbb{R}##.
  • ##f^\prime## is decreasing.
  • ##\frac{f(x)}{x}## is decreasing.
  • For each ##t\in [0,1]## and for all ##x## holds that ##tf(x)\leq f(tx)##.
  • For each ##x## and ##y## holds that ##f(x+y)\leq f(x) + f(y)##.

The proof is as follows:
From ##(1)## to ##(2)## is just elementary calculus.
From ##(2)## to ##(3)## is as follows. We need to prove that the derivative of ##\frac{f(x)}{x}## is negative. By taking derivatives, we need to prove that ##f^\prime(x) x\leq f(x)## for each ##x##. Apply the mean value theorem on the interval ##[0,x]##. So we know that there is a constant ##c\in [0,x]## such hat
f(x)= f^{\prime}(c) x
Using that ##f^\prime## is decreasing, the inequality follows.
From ##(3)## to ##(4)## follows since ##tx\leq x## and thus ##\frac{f(x)}{x}\leq \frac{f(tx)}{tx}##. Hence the inequality follows.
From ##(4)## to ##(5)## follows from
\begin{eqnarray*}<br /> f(x) + f(y) <br /> &amp; = &amp; f\left(\frac{x}{x+y}(x+y)\right) + f\left(\frac{y}{x+y} (x+y)\right)\\<br /> &amp; \leq &amp; \frac{x}{x+y}f(x+y) + \frac{y}{x+y} f(x+y) \\<br /> &amp; = &amp; f(x+y)<br /> \end{eqnarray*}

Yet another proof consists of proving that ##f## is a concave function. This means that for each ##x## and ##y## and ##t\in [0,1]## that
f(tx + (1-t)y) \geq tf(x) + (1-t)f(y)
Visually, it means that



So, the straight line between two points is always below the actual function.

Here is the proof that any function such that ##f^{\prime\prime}<0## is concave:

Assume that ##f^{\prime\prime}\leq 0##. Take ##x<y## and ##t\in (0,1)##. Let ##z = tx + (1-t)y## and thus ##x< z < y##. By the mean value theorem, there are ##u## and ##v## such that ##x<u<z<v<y## and such that ##f(z) - f(x) = f^\prime(u) (z-x)## and ##f(y) - f(z) = f^\prime(v) (y-z)##. Since ##f^\prime## is decreasing, we have ##f^\prime(v)\leq f^\prime(u)##. Hence
\frac{f(y) - f(z)}{y-z}\leq \frac{f(z) - f(x)}{z-x}
Since ##z = tx + (1-t)y##, we see that
\frac{f(y) - f(z)}{t(y-x)} \leq \frac{f(z) - f(x)}{(1-t)(y-x)}
And thus
(1-t)( f(y) - f(z) ) \leq t(f(z) - f(x))
The desired inequality follows.

Now, we can immediately prove again that ##tf(x)\leq f(tx)## for each ##x## and ##t\in [0,1]##. Indeed, apply concavity with ##y=0## (and remember that ##f(0) = 0##, then
tf(x) = tf(x) + (1-t)f(0) \leq f(tx + (1-t)y)\leq f(tx)
We can then, as before, prove ##f(x+y)\leq f(x) + f(y)##.

Many congratulations to Millenial for solving the problem!
 
Last edited:
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There are some theorems in calculus which are especially important: the mean value theorem (or Rolle's theorem), the theorem of Bolzano-Weierstrass, the implicit function theorem and of course the many variants of Stoke's theorem.
 

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