Chemical potential using Boltzmann equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating chemical potential using the Boltzmann equation in the relaxation time approximation. The equation is defined as $$f=f^0-\tau v_z^2 \partial f^0/\partial z$$, with $$f^0$$ given by $$f^0 = 2(\frac{m}{2\pi\hbar})^3 \frac{1}{\exp{\beta(z)(\frac{mv^2}{2}-\mu(z))}+1}$$. The participants emphasize the importance of using the limit $$\mu \beta \gg 1$$ and suggest substitutions for integrals to simplify calculations. Key integrals include $$I_0=1$$, $$I_1=0$$, and $$I_2=\pi^2 / 3$$, which are critical for deriving the chemical potential.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Boltzmann equation and its applications in statistical mechanics.
  • Familiarity with the relaxation time approximation in kinetic theory.
  • Knowledge of integral calculus, particularly with respect to substitution methods.
  • Basic concepts of thermodynamics, including chemical potential and its significance.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Boltzmann equation and its implications in statistical mechanics.
  • Learn about the relaxation time approximation and its applications in kinetic theory.
  • Explore integral calculus techniques, focusing on substitution methods for complex integrals.
  • Investigate the significance of chemical potential in thermodynamic systems and its calculation methods.
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in physics, particularly those specializing in statistical mechanics, thermodynamics, and kinetic theory. This discussion is beneficial for anyone looking to deepen their understanding of chemical potential calculations using the Boltzmann equation.

Mikhail_MR
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Homework Statement


I must calculate chemical potential using the Boltzmann equation in relaxation time approximation $$f=f^0-\tau v_z^2 \partial f^0/\partial z,$$ where ##f^0## is given as
$$f^0 = 2(\frac{m}{2\pi\hbar})^3 \frac{1}{\exp{\beta(z)(\frac{mv^2}{2}-\mu(z))}+1}$$
I have to consider only heat current without electrical current. In this case, I can make use of ##<v_z>=0##.

Homework Equations


##0=<v_z>=\int d^3 v (v_z f^0 - \tau v_z^2 \partial f^0/\partial z)##. I can also use the limit ##\mu \beta \gg 1## and ##I_n=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} dx x^n \frac{e^x}{(e^x+1)^2}## with ##I_0=1, ~I_1=0, ~I_2=\pi^2 / 3##

The Attempt at a Solution


Because I have velocity only in ##z## direction, I can calculate the first integral
$$c_0 \int dv_z v_z \frac{1}{\exp{\beta (mv_z^2 / 2 - \mu)}+1} = c_0 \frac{\beta m v_z^2/2 - \ln(\exp{\beta m v_z^2 /2}+\exp{\beta \mu})}{\beta m}$$ Now I can make use of ##\beta \mu \gg 1## and I get $$c_0 (v_z^2/2-\mu/m)$$ with ##c_0 = 2(\frac{m}{2\pi\hbar})^3##

To calculate the second integral I need to calculate the derivative first.
$$\partial f^0/ \partial z = - e^x /(e^x+1)^2 dx(v, z)/dz$$ with ##x=\beta (m v^2 / 2 - \mu)##
$$\Rightarrow \partial f^0/ \partial z = - e^x /(e^x+1)^2 [\mu d\beta / dz - m v^2/2 \cdot d\beta / dz - \beta d\mu /dz]$$

Now I must somehow get the form of the integrals ##I_n##. But I do not see a way I can do it. Have I missed some step or is my attempt at a solution completely wrong?.

Any help would be appreciated
 
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I have the following suggestions:
1. For the integral$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty v_z f^0 dv_z$$make the substitution$$x=\beta \left ( \frac{m v_z^2}{2} - \mu \right ),$$express##f^0## as$$f^0 =\frac{e^{-x}}{1 + e^{-x}},$$and observe that the integral has even symmetry about ##v_z = 0##.
2. For the integral$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \tau v_z^2 \frac{\partial f^0}{\partial z} dv_z$$make the same substitution for x and write$$\frac{\partial f^0}{\partial z}=\frac{\partial f^0}{\partial v_z} \frac{\partial v_z}{\partial z}$$ and observe that ##\frac{\partial v_z}{\partial z}\approx \frac{1
}{\tau}##.
 
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