Commutation Problem: Eigenvectors, Basis & Hamiltonian

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The discussion centers on the commutation relations between operators in quantum mechanics, specifically regarding the Hamiltonian and other operators. It is established that if an operator B_i has eigenvectors that form a complete set with the Hamiltonian H, then B_i and B_j must commute. However, it is noted that even if operators commute with the Hamiltonian, degeneracy in energy states can lead to non-commuting relationships between angular momentum operators. The participants express uncertainty about how to mathematically formalize these concepts, particularly in reconciling the commutation of H with individual operators while observing non-commutation among them. Further mathematical proof is suggested to clarify these relationships.
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Homework Statement
Consider a finite set of operators $B_i$
Let H be a Hamiltonian which commutes with each Bi;
i.e., [H, Bi] = 0 for all i. Suppose the |a_n> 's form a complete set of eigenstates of H satisfying
H|a_n>= a_n|a_n>.
(a) Let us choose one particular value of i and one particular value of n. Under what
circumstances can it be deduced that Bi|a_n> is proportional to |a_n>?
(b) Show that if the above is true for all i and for all n, then [B_i, B_j] = 0 for all i, j.
(c) How can you reconcile the rule stated in part (b) with the fact that for angular momentum
operators L_i, we can have a situation where [Li, H] = 0 but [Li, Lj] \= 0 when i \= j.
Relevant Equations
H|a_n>=a_n|a_n>
a) This would be true whenever |a_n> is an eigenvector of B_i.
b) If this holds true for each eigenvector, then B_i and B_j must share the same basis. Therefore, they must commute. Is this reasoning correct?
C) Despite commuting with the hamiltonian. the energy states can be degenerate, which I believe would imply that Li and Lj does not commute. Not sure how to mathematically formalize this though.
 
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Diracobama2181 said:
a) This would be true whenever |a_n> is an eigenvector of B_i.
The point of this part of the question is to figure out what has to be true so you can conclude that ##\lvert a_n \rangle## is an eigenvector of ##B_i##.
 
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Diracobama2181 said:
Homework Statement:: Consider a finite set of operators $B_i$
Let H be a Hamiltonian which commutes with each Bi;
i.e., [H, Bi] = 0 for all i. Suppose the |a_n> 's form a complete set of eigenstates of H satisfying
H|a_n>= a_n|a_n>.
(a) Let us choose one particular value of i and one particular value of n. Under what
circumstances can it be deduced that Bi|a_n> is proportional to |a_n>?
(b) Show that if the above is true for all i and for all n, then [B_i, B_j] = 0 for all i, j.
(c) How can you reconcile the rule stated in part (b) with the fact that for angular momentum
operators L_i, we can have a situation where [Li, H] = 0 but [Li, Lj] \= 0 when i \= j.
Homework Equations:: H|a_n>=a_n|a_n>

a) This would be true whenever |a_n> is an eigenvector of B_i.
b) If this holds true for each eigenvector, then B_i and B_j must share the same basis. Therefore, they must commute. Is this reasoning correct?
C) Despite commuting with the hamiltonian. the energy states can be degenerate, which I believe would imply that Li and Lj does not commute. Not sure how to mathematically formalize this though.

You need to do more maths for these answers. For example, for part b) you need to show that for any state (vector) ##\psi## we have ##B_iB_j (\psi) = B_jB_i(\psi)##.
 

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