Compact Set Question: Counterexample Proved

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the question of whether a set defined by a sequence converging to a limit in a metric space is compact. Participants explore the implications of a counterexample involving the sequence \(\{\frac{1}{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\) in the real numbers and the conditions under which compactness can be asserted.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a counterexample using the sequence \(\{\frac{1}{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\) to argue that the set is not compact since its limit does not belong to the set.
  • Several participants question whether the notation \(\{x_j\}_{j=1}^{\infty}\) should instead be \(\{x_j\}_{j=0}^{\infty}\) and discuss the implications of this potential error on compactness.
  • Another participant reiterates the counterexample and emphasizes that the sequence converges to \(0\) but is still not compact.
  • There is a moment of realization from one participant acknowledging a misunderstanding related to the limit condition.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the set defined by the sequence \(\{\frac{1}{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\) is not compact. However, there is disagreement regarding the notation and its implications for the compactness argument.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the importance of notation and definitions in mathematical arguments, as well as the conditions under which compactness can be evaluated in metric spaces.

Sudharaka
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Hi everyone, :)

I encountered the following question recently. :)

Let \((X,\,d)\) be a metric space and \(\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}d(x_n,\, x_0)=0\). Prove that the set \(\{x_{j}\}_{j=1}^{\infty}\) is compact.

Now I think this question is wrong. Let me give a counterexample. Take the set of real numbers with the usual Euclidean metric. Then take for example the sequence, \(\{\frac{1}{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\). Then,

\[\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}d(x_n,\, x_0)=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left|\frac{1}{n}-0\right|=0\]

All subsequences of \(\{\frac{1}{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\) should converge to the same limit, which in this case is zero. Hence \(\{\frac{1}{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\) is not compact as the limiting value of the sequence (and hence all subsequences) does not belong to \(\{\frac{1}{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\). Let me know if I am wrong. :)

Thank you.
 
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I agree with you. However, the set \{x_j\}_{j= 0}^\infty is compact. Could that "j= 1" be a printing error?
 
HallsofIvy said:
I agree with you. However, the set \{x_j\}_{j= 0}^\infty is compact. Could that "j= 1" be a printing error?

Hi HallsofIvy, :)

Thanks for replying. But how can that make a difference? For example I can define a sequence in the real numbers like,

\[x_{0}=1\mbox{ and }x_n=\frac{1}{n}\mbox{ for }n\geq 1\]

which is again convergent to \(0\) but not compact.
 
Sudharaka said:
HallsofIvy said:
I agree with you. However, the set \{x_j\}_{j= 0}^\infty is compact. Could that "j= 1" be a printing error?
But how can that make a difference? For example I can define a sequence in the real numbers like,
\[x_{0}=1\mbox{ and }x_n=\frac{1}{n}\mbox{ for }n\geq 1\]
which is again convergent to \(0\) but not compact.

But now {\lim _{n \to \infty }}d({a_n},{a_0}) \ne 0
 
Plato said:
Sudharaka said:
But how can that make a difference? For example I can define a sequence in the real numbers like,
\[x_{0}=1\mbox{ and }x_n=\frac{1}{n}\mbox{ for }n\geq 1\]
which is again convergent to \(0\) but not compact.

But now {\lim _{n \to \infty }}d({a_n},{a_0}) \ne 0

Arghaaaaaa... How could I missed that... (Angry) (Headbang)

Thanks for pointing that out. :)
 

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