If a set A and a set B are equivalent, and it is known that A is complete, can it then be said that B is also complete?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

What if it is known that A is closed, can it then be said that B is also closed?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Complete, Equivalent, Closed sets

Loading...

Similar Threads - Complete Equivalent Closed | Date |
---|---|

I Equivalence of quantified statements | Feb 22, 2018 |

Lattice/Complete lattice | Jun 10, 2014 |

Confidence of complete spatial randomness | May 8, 2014 |

Complete Random Design vs RCBD | Sep 7, 2013 |

Completeness notions in logic | Feb 23, 2013 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**