MHB Complex Analysis: Does $\int_{C(0,10)} f(z)$ Equal 0?

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The discussion centers on two questions regarding complex analysis and integrals. For the first question, it is confirmed that Cauchy's theorem can be applied, leading to the conclusion that the integral of the function over the contour is indeed zero. The second question addresses the existence of a sequence of holomorphic polynomials converging uniformly to a specific function, affirming that uniform convergence allows for the interchange of limit and integral. It is clarified that there is no need to check if the integral equals zero, as the focus should be on the convergence of the polynomials. The conversation emphasizes the application of Cauchy's theorem and properties of uniform convergence in complex analysis.
mathmari
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Hey! :giggle:

Question 1:
If $f\in O(\Delta (0,1,15))$ then does it hold that $$\int_{C(0,10)}\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}\, dz=2\pi i\text{Res}\left (\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}, 6-4i\right )+\int_{C(0,6)}\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}\, dz$$ Do we maybe use here Cauchy theorem and then we get $$\int_{C(0,10)}\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}\, dz=0$$Question 2:
Is there a sequence of holomorphic polynomials $P_n(z), n=1,2,\ldots$ such that $$P_n(z)\rightarrow \frac{z(e^{6z}-1)(e^{4z}-1)}{\sin^2\left (\frac{z}{4}\right )\sin^2\left (\frac{2z}{5}\right )}$$ as $n\rightarrow \infty$, uniformly for $z\in \Delta (0,1,3)$ ?

since the convergence is uniform we get that $$\int \frac{z(e^{6z}-1)(e^{4z}-1)}{\sin^2\left (\frac{z}{4}\right )\sin^2\left (\frac{2z}{5}\right )}\, dz=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\int P_n(z)$$ Do we have tocheck if this integral is equal to $0$ ?:unsure:
 
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mathmari said:
Question 1:
If $f\in O(\Delta (0,1,15))$ then does it hold that $$\int_{C(0,10)}\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}\, dz=2\pi i\text{Res}\left (\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}, 6-4i\right )+\int_{C(0,6)}\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}\, dz$$ Do we maybe use here Cauchy theorem and then we get $$\int_{C(0,10)}\frac{f(z)}{(z-6+4i)^5}\, dz=0$$
Hey mathmari!

What is $O(\Delta (0,1,15))$? (Wondering)
 


Hey! For question 1, yes, you can use Cauchy's theorem to show that the integral is equal to 0. For question 2, it is not necessary to check if the integral is equal to 0. The fact that the convergence is uniform means that the limit of the integral is equal to the integral of the limit. Therefore, you can just focus on showing that the polynomials converge to the given function. Hope this helps!
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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