Is the Singularity of F(z) at z=0 Removable or a Pole?

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The discussion focuses on the nature of the singularity of the function F(z) at z=0, specifically whether it is removable or a pole. The sequence f_n = f(z/n) is analyzed in the context of normal families within a punctured disk that excludes the origin. It is established that if the singularity is removable, f_n converges uniformly to f(0), while if it is a pole, f_n diverges uniformly to infinity. Additionally, Picard's theorem indicates that if the singularity is essential, the convergence cannot be uniform as f_n will take on almost all values for large n. The inquiry highlights the complexities of understanding normal families in relation to singularities.
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Hello All,
Just when I thought I understood whatever there was to understand about Normal Families...

F(z) is analytic on the punctured disk and we define the sequence
f_{n}=f(z/n) for n \leq 1.

Trying (and failing) to show that {f_n} is a normal family on the punctured disk iff the singularity of f(z) at z=0 is removable or a pole

Any help is appreciated, thank you
 
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Let D be a compact disk within the punctured disk. D doesn't contain the origin.
z/n -> 0 when n-> inf. So, the behaviour of {f_n} in D as in a neighbourhood of 0.
If the singularity is removable, {f_n} -> f(0) uniformly. If 0 is a pole,
{f_n} ->inf. uniformly ( because z^k .f_n(z) will be holomorphic for some k>=1).
Finally, Picard's big theorem guarantees that if 0 is an essential singularity,
f_n(z) assumes almost all values for sufficiently big n.Hence, the convergence can't be uniform.
 
I thank you very much Eynstone.
Need to study more...I am not prelim-ready yet
Regards
 
I thank you very much Eynstone.
Need to study more...I am not prelim-ready yet
Regards
 
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