Indeed, it gets very complicated. Sure you CAN prove it. Work out u(x,y) and v(x,y) and show they satisfy Cauchy-Riemann. That's equivalent to complex differentiability. But that's just silly. It's a colossal amount of work. z, cos(z) and sin(z) are differentiable. Show they are differentiable from first principles. Then just use the quotient rule and the product rule. Haven't we talked about this in another thread??