Complex polynomial properties when bounded (Liouville theorem)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of Liouville's theorem to complex functions bounded by a polynomial. Specifically, it examines the case where a differentiable function \( f \) satisfies \( |f(z)| \leq C|z|^m \) for \( m \geq 1 \) and \( C > 0 \). The conclusion drawn is that for \( m = 1 \), \( f(z) \) can be expressed as \( f(z) = a_1 z \), while for \( m > 1 \), the function must take the form \( f(z) = a z^m \), contradicting the initial assumption that \( f(z) \) could have higher degree terms. The discussion highlights the limitations of Liouville's theorem in this context.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of complex analysis concepts, particularly Liouville's theorem.
  • Familiarity with differentiable functions in the complex plane.
  • Knowledge of Taylor series expansions for analytic functions.
  • Basic grasp of polynomial functions and their properties.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of Liouville's theorem on entire functions.
  • Explore the properties of analytic functions and their Taylor series representations.
  • Investigate the behavior of functions bounded by polynomials in complex analysis.
  • Learn about the classification of entire functions and their growth rates.
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Mathematicians, students of complex analysis, and anyone interested in the properties of analytic functions and their behavior under polynomial bounds.

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Homework Statement



Suppose f is differentiable in \mathbb{C} and |f(z)| \leq C|z|^m for some m \geq 1, C > 0 and all z \in \mathbb{C}, show that;

f(z) = a_1z + a_2 z^2 + a_3 z^3 + ... a_m z^m

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



I can't seem to show this. It does the proof when m = 1 because then;

If f(z) is differentiable, it's analytic (possible to expand into taylor series), so;

f(z) = a_0 + a_1z + a_2 z^2 + a_3 z^3 + ...

|f(0)| = |a_0| \leq C|0| = 0

So a_0 = 0

Then take g(z) = f(z)/z

|g(z)| \leq C, by Liouville's theorem this means g(z) is a constant, i.e. g(z) = a_1 so f(z) = g(z)z = a_1 zI can't seem to prove this for m > 1 though, because this means

|f(z)| \leq C|z|^m

so

|f(0)| \leq C|0|^m = 0

So a_0 = 0

Again take

g(z) = f(z)/z = a_1 + a_2 z + a_3 z^2 + ...

Then |g(z)| = |f(z)|/|z| \leq C|z|^{m-1}

So |g(0)| \leq C|0|^{m-1} = 0

Meaning a_1 = 0

Keep on applying this shows that a_1 = a_2 = ... = a_{m-1} = 0, which pretty much disproves exactly what I'm trying to prove. Any help?
 
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I think the problem is wrong (well the statement is technically true, but Liouville gives a much stronger result). It should be that f is some constant times zm which is what you got. For example in the m=2 case we have

f(z) = az+bz2
|f(z)| \geq |a||z|-|b||z|^2 for small values of z. If |z| is super small (smaller than |a|/(2|b|))
|f(z)| \geq |a||z|/2 and no matter what our constant C is, we can pick |z| small enough so that
|a||z|/2 > C|z|^2
for example let |z| < |a|/(2C)
 

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