Computable sequence of rationals with a noncomputable limit

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TL;DR
There is a computable sequence of rational numbers with limit whose n-th binary digit is not a computable function of n
This is a proof of the above statement in Stillwell's "Reverse Mathematics", p.77:

1768925171166.webp


My question is, how do we know that the sequence ##r_1, r_2, ...## converges?
 
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Doesn't this come from the series being finite binary expansion? Being finite it will sum to a finite number.
 
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You should describe ##D## for us, I assume it is a subset of the natural numbers.
With that in mind:
Since ##f## is an injection on a subset of ##D##, each ##r_n \lt \sum_{i=1}^\infty 2^{-i} = 1##. Since the sequence, ##r_n## is increasing and bounded, it converges.
 
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jedishrfu said:
Doesn't this come from the series being finite binary expansion? Being finite it will sum to a finite number.
I don't understand.
I understand that each ##r_n## has a finite binary expansion. I also understand that if the sequence converges, the limit is a finite number. I just don't see how we know that the sequence converges.
 
FactChecker said:
You should describe ##D## for us, I assume it is a subset of the natural numbers.
Yes, it is.

FactChecker said:
Since ##f## is an injection on a subset of ##D##, each ##r_n \lt \sum_{i=1}^\infty 2^{-i} = 1##. Since the sequence, ##r_n## is increasing and bounded, it converges.
The sequence ##r_n=\sum_{i=1}^n 2^{-i}## is increasing, but not necessarily the sequence ##r_n=\sum_{i=1}^n 2^{-f(i)}##, I think.
 
You are summing to n not to infinity. Convergence doesn't come into play.

A finite expansion will have a finite number of terms and in this case each term is ##2^{-1}## or did I misread the text.
 
jedishrfu said:
You are summing to n not to infinity. Convergence doesn't come into play.

A finite expansion will have a finite number of terms and in this case each term is ##2^-1## or did I misread the text.
The statement is about n-th binary digit of the limit. For the limit to exist, the sequence needs to converge, doesn't it?
 
Perhaps it is not important for my question, but in case it clarifies the proof, here is the description of ##D##, with explanation of the notation:

Screenshot 2026-01-20 122623.webp
 
FactChecker said:
Since ##f## is an injection on a subset of ##D##, each ##r_n \lt \sum_{i=1}^\infty 2^{-i} = 1##. Since the sequence, ##r_n## is increasing and bounded, it converges.
You're right. The sequence ##r_n=\sum_{i=1}^n 2^{-f(i)}## is increasing. I was mistaken in the post #5.
 

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