Computing ∫|z|=2π (π sin(z))/(z(z-π)) dz with Cauchy's formula

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Homework Statement



Use Cauchy's Integral Formula to compute the following integral:

[tex]\int_{|z|=2\pi}\frac{\pi \sin(z)}{z(z-\pi)}dz[/tex]

Homework Equations



[tex]\int_C \frac{f(z)dz}{z-z_0}=2\pi if(z_0)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



If we let

[tex]f(z)=\frac{\pi \sin(z)}{z}[/tex]

and

[tex]z_0=\pi[/tex]

Then

[tex]\int_{|z|=2\pi}\frac{\pi \sin(z)/z}{(z-\pi)}dz=0[/tex]

Is this correct? I'm concerned about the fact that the function isn't differentiable at z=pi and that pi is an interior point of C...Part of me thinks that this integral cannot be evaluated with Cauchy's formula, but I do not yet understand the subject matter well enough to know for sure.
 
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phyzmatix said:

Homework Statement



Use Cauchy's Integral Formula to compute the following integral:

[tex]\int_{|z|=2\pi}\frac{\pi \sin(z)}{z(z-\pi)}dz[/tex]

Homework Equations



[tex]\int_C \frac{f(z)dz}{z-z_0}=2\pi if(z_0)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



If we let

[tex]f(z)=\frac{\pi \sin(z)}{z}[/tex]

and

[tex]z_0=\pi[/tex]

Then

[tex]\int_{|z|=2\pi}\frac{\pi \sin(z)/z}{(z-\pi)}dz=0[/tex]

Is this correct? I'm concerned about the fact that the function isn't differentiable at z=pi and that pi is an interior point of C...Part of me thinks that this integral cannot be evaluated with Cauchy's formula, but I do not yet understand the subject matter well enough to know for sure.

I think you need to look at where the integral has the socalled simple pole

and [tex]z= \pi[/tex] is a simple pole.