Conceptual Problem with Convolution Theorem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of the convolution theorem to integrals involving the step function U(x) and real function p(x). The user successfully applies the theorem to the integral with the negative exponential, \(\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}p(x)U(x)e^{-i \omega x}dx\), resulting in \(\mathcal{F}[p(x)U(x)] = P(\omega)*U(\omega)\). However, they encounter difficulties with the positive exponential integral, \(\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}p(x)U(x)e^{+i \omega x}dx\), and seek clarification on how to express this in terms of convolutions. The user also notes the distinction between Fourier Transform operations and convolution in their equations.

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  • Understanding of Fourier Transform and its properties
  • Familiarity with convolution theorem applications
  • Knowledge of real functions and step functions
  • Basic complex analysis, particularly with exponential functions
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  • Explore the implications of the convolution theorem on integrals with positive and negative exponentials
  • Investigate the behavior of real and imaginary parts of complex integrals
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Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers working with signal processing, particularly those dealing with Fourier analysis and convolution operations.

thrillhouse86
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Hi - I'm trying to work out the following convolution problem:

I have the following integral:
[tex] \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}p(x)U(x)e^{-i \omega x}dx[/tex]

Where p(x) is any real function which is always positive and U(x) is the step function

Obviously this can easily be solved using the convolution theorem because I have
[tex] \mathcal{F}[p(x)U(x)] = P(\omega)*U(\omega)[/tex]

The problem I having is with the very similar integral but the exponential is now positive:
[tex] \int^{\infty}_{-infty}p(x)U(x)e^{+i \omega x}dx[/tex]

I don't know how to deal with this integral - even though I suspect I can use the convolution theorem on it.

I've tried to derive the convolution theorem for both exponentials but I get stuck at the stage:

[tex] \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(\omega')U(\omega-\omega')d\omega'e^{-i\omega x}d\omega = p(x)u(x)[/tex]

And:

[tex] \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(\omega')U(\omega-\omega')d\omega'e^{+i\omega x}d\omega = p(x)u(x)[/tex]

My problem is this:
If I define the [tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} f(x) e^{-i\omega x}[/tex] integral as the Fourier Transform - then I can write the second equation as:
[tex] \mathcal{F}^{-1}[P(\omega)*U(\omega)] =p(x)u(x)[/tex]
And thus applying the inverse Fourier operator to both sides I get:
[tex] [P(\omega)*U(\omega)] =\mathcal{F}[p(x)u(x)][/tex]

But If I set up this convention for my Fourier Transform how do I deal with the first equation:
[tex] \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(\omega')U(\omega-\omega')d\omega'e^{-i\omega x}d\omega = p(x)u(x)[/tex]

This isn't a Fourier Transform operation anymore - its slightly different. Is there anything I can do from here to show what:
[tex] \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} p(x)u(x)e^{i\omega x} dx[/tex]

is in terms of convolutions ?
 
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Think about real and imaginary parts of the integral separately.

p(x) and U(x) are real functions.

[itex]e^{i\omega x} = \cos \omega x + i \sin \omega x[/itex]

[itex]e^{-i\omega x} = \cos \omega x - i \sin \omega x[/itex]

That's all you need to answer the question.
 
Last edited:
Thanks AlpehZero - I guess it always helps to go back to the fundamental definitions ...
 

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