Conditions on f for dx/f(x) to be a Measure in L^2

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the conditions required for the function \( f \) to ensure that \( \frac{dx}{f(x)} \) is a valid measure in the Hilbert space \( L^2(R, \frac{dx}{f(x)}) \). It is established that \( f \) must be positive, measurable, and that \( \frac{1}{f} \) must sum to one for the measure to be valid. Additionally, the integral of \( a^* a / f \) must be finite for functions \( a \) within this space. The discussion confirms that \( \frac{1}{f} \) is measurable if and only if \( f \) is measurable.

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Jip
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Hi,
Let's say I consider the real numbers and some function real function f, nowhere zero, and positive.
My question is, what are the conditions on f for dx/f(x) to be a valid measure on this space?

(I have to consider a Hilbert space L^2(R, dx/f(x)) with scalar product a.b = \int a^*(x) b(x) \frac{dx}{f(x)}

I'm a physicist, so please excuse me if this is not written in perfect mathematical language!
Thanks
 
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To get a valid measure you just need it (1/f) (to be measurable and) to sum to one; but your Hilbert space will contain only functions a such that the integral of a*a/f is finite. If you need this to apply to a specific class of functions then you'll have to restricf f accordingly.
 
In addition to you assumptions (everywhere or almost everywhere positive) it needs to be measurable, and that is all.
 
Hawkeye18 said:
In addition to you assumptions (everywhere or almost everywhere positive) it needs to be measurable, and that is all.
Thanks! And when 1/f is measurable, is it also true for f?
 
Yes, ##1/f## is measurable if and only if ##f## is.
 

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