Confused about the theory behind Frobenius' Method

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Frobenius method for solving differential equations, specifically addressing the conditions under which it applies. It clarifies that if the differential equation A(x)y''(x) + B(x)y'(x) + C(x)y(x) = 0 has A(a) = 0 while B(a) and C(a) are not both zero, then a is a singular point where power series solutions are not viable. The importance of the Frobenius method is highlighted, particularly in its ability to provide solutions around regular singular points, which cannot be achieved through standard power series methods alone.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of differential equations, specifically second-order linear equations.
  • Familiarity with power series and their convergence properties.
  • Knowledge of singular points in the context of differential equations.
  • Basic grasp of complex analysis, particularly regarding the continuity of complex roots.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and application of the Frobenius method in solving differential equations.
  • Explore the concept of regular and irregular singular points in more depth.
  • Learn about the Euler-Cauchy equation and its significance in the context of singular points.
  • Investigate the relationship between power series solutions and the conditions for their convergence.
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Mathematics students, educators, and researchers interested in advanced differential equations and their solution techniques, particularly those focusing on singular points and series solutions.

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Hello,

My course is a bit vague on this topic.

1 First of all it states: if the differential equation A(x)y''(x) + B(x)y'(x) + C(x)y(x) = 0 with A, B, C analytical has A(a) = 0 but B(a) and C(a) NOT both zero, then a is a singular point and we can't solve it with a power series.
Now: what would it change if A(a) = B(a) = C(a) = 0? In other words:
Don't we need Frobenius for
x^2 y''(x) + x^2 y(x) = 0?
You might say "you don't, cause you can just divide the x away for x not zero" then well... I ask: can't we do exactly the same in all the cases where we use Frobenius?
(NB: I just tried to solve it with Frobenius but got the zero function as the solution...)

2 Then the course simply states the theorem that the differential equation
y''(x) + \frac{p(x)}{x}y'(x) + \frac{q(x)}{x^2}y(x) = 0
with p and q analytical around zero and R and r the (real) solutions of the indicial equation, then for x > 0 for R (> r) you certainly have the solution
y_1(x) = x^R \sum a_n(R) x^n
(it also says something about a second solution, but that's let no go into that here)

Now it briefly says that it only works for x > 0 because somewhere we choose to define the root of a complex number for theta in ]-pi,pi[ and we showed that that definition cannot be defined continuously in pi, but I don't really understand how any of that ties into the Frobenius method and where you make that choice in the solution of the Frobenius method.

3 I don't understand the importance of the Frobenius method: why go through so much trouble to get a power-series-esque solution around zero if we can get a regular power series around any number as close to zero as we'd like? (I'm not trashing the method, I'm just trying to understand its importance/significance!)

Thank you very much(!)
 
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Specifically, what Frobenius' method says if that A(x)y"+ B(x)y'+ C(x)= 0 has a "regular singlular point" at x= a (and so can be solve by "Frobenius' method") if and only if
\displaytype\lim_{x\to a}\frac{A(x)}{C^2(x)}
and
\displaytype\lim_{x\to a}\frac{B(x)}{C(x)}
exist.

You might think of the "Euler-Cauchy" equation:
Ax^2y&quot;+ Bxy&#039;+ Cy= 0[/itex]<br /> as the &quot;boundary&quot; between regular and irregular singular points.
 

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