Congruence Proof: Prove a=b if a is congruent to b for every prime p

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that if two integers a and b are congruent modulo every positive prime p, then a must equal b. The discussion centers around properties of divisibility and congruence in number theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to establish the relationship between a and b through congruence and divisibility. They express uncertainty about how to proceed after deriving that p divides (a-b). Other participants question the implications of a number being divisible by all primes and explore the uniqueness of zero in this context.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some providing insights into the nature of numbers divisible by all primes. There is a productive exchange regarding the proof structure and logical reasoning, although no consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem, particularly the implications of divisibility by all primes and the assumptions about integers a and b. The original poster is seeking guidance on how to articulate their proof effectively.

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Homework Statement



If a and b are integers and a is congruent to b(mod p) for every positive prime p, prove that a=b

Homework Equations



p divides (a-b) if a is congruent to b modulo p
if p divides ab then p divides a or p divides b (if p is prime)


The Attempt at a Solution



Suppose a is congruent to b(mod p)
so, p divides (a-b)
which means, there exists an integer c so that (a-b)=pc
where a=pc+b
(pc+b) is congruent to b(mod p)
so, p divides (pc+b-b)= (pc)
p divides (pc)

This is where i get stuck, i don't know if i should say since p is prime, p divides p or p divides c, or i don't know if i did this completely wrong. Any help would be appreciated =)
 
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It looks like you have that (a-b) is divisible by ALL primes. How many numbers have that property?
 
I think only zero has that property since all numbers divide zero. However, how am I supposed to show that in my proof?
 
It's pretty easy to show zero is the only number with that property. Suppose you have a nonzero number n which is divisible by all primes. But you can always find a prime p>|n| (why?). So p doesn't divide n (why?). That's a contradiction. So there is no such n.
 
ok, i'll do that, thanks so much for the help!
 

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