Continuity of one function, implies continuity of another?

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The discussion centers on the relationship between the continuity of a function f(x) and the continuity of its integral G(x) = ∫0x f(t) dt. It is established that if f(x) is continuous, then G(x) is also continuous. However, the converse is not true; G(x) can be continuous even if f(x) is not continuous, as long as f is integrable. This conclusion emphasizes that continuity of the integral does not necessitate continuity of the original function.

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bobby2k
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Hi

Lets say that f(x) is continuous. Then [itex]\int_0^x \! f(t)dt=G(x)[/itex] is continuous. (I don't think you have to say that f need to be continuous for this, all we need to say is that f is integrable?, or do we need continuity of f here?)

But my main question is about the converse. let's say that [itex]\int_0^x \! f(t)dt=G(x)[/itex] is continuous, does that imply that f is continuous?

Have a nice sunday.
 
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bobby2k said:
Hi

Lets say that f(x) is continuous. Then [itex]\int_0^x \! f(t)dt=G(x)[/itex] is continuous. (I don't think you have to say that f need to be continuous for this, all we need to say is that f is integrable?, or do we need continuity of f here?)

This is true for any integrable function.

But my main question is about the converse. let's say that [itex]\int_0^x \! f(t)dt=G(x)[/itex] is continuous, does that imply that f is continuous?

No: by the above, [itex]f[/itex] does not need to be continuous for its integral to be continuous.
 
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pasmith said:
This is true for any integrable function.



No: by the above, [itex]f[/itex] does not need to be continuous for its integral to be continuous.

Hehe, ofcourse, thanks.
 

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