Convergence/divergence of complex series

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The series \(\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{-i^n}{\ln(n)}\) is under discussion regarding its convergence properties. While it is established that the series is not absolutely convergent, the proof of divergence remains contentious. Some participants argue that the real and imaginary parts of the series form two alternating series, which converge by the Leibniz theorem. This indicates that the original series may not be divergent as initially posited.

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freddyfish
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The question is simple:

how do I prove that the following series is divergent? That it is not absolutely convergent is not hard to see, but that is not enough to prove divergence of the series as it is presented:

[itex]\sum[/itex](-i)n/ln(n)

The summation is from 2 to infinity.

Thanks
 
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freddyfish said:
The question is simple:

how do I prove that the following series is divergent? That it is not absolutely convergent is not hard to see, but that is not enough to prove divergence of the series as it is presented:

[itex]\sum[/itex](-i)n/ln(n)

The summation is from 2 to infinity.

Thanks

I don't think it is divergent. The real and imaginary parts form two alternating series, don't they?
 
Yeah, they sure do and by the Leibniz theorem they converge to some finite number. The book that the answer is taken from stinks in the sense that the key is very often wrong, so I guess this is one of the cases where it is wrong and now I also have a second opinion to take into consideration.

Thank you for your answer! :)
 

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