Converting an Integral to a Rieman Sum

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To convert the integral ∫0^n (sin x + x) dx into a Riemann sum, first recognize that the function is continuous and Riemann integrable over the interval [0, n]. A partition can be created with points x_0 = 0, x_1 = n/k, ..., x_k = n, where k is the number of subintervals. The Riemann sum is then expressed as the limit of the sum: lim (k→∞) (1/k) Σ (sin(in/k) + in/k). This method allows for the approximation of the integral using the selected partition and points within each subinterval. Understanding this process is essential for applying the fundamental theorem of calculus effectively.
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I know I should know this, but how would one convert a typical integral into a Rieman Sum?

0n sinx + x dx for whatever n.

for example.
 
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smize said:
I know I should know this, but how would one convert a typical integral into a Rieman Sum?

0n sinx + x dx for whatever n.

for example.

This function happens to be Riemann Integrable with closed form anti-derivatives: try using the fundamental theorem of calculus to get a closed form expression in terms of G(n) - G(0) where G(x) is the appropriate anti-derivative.
 
smize said:
I know I should know this, but how would one convert a typical integral into a Rieman Sum?

0n sinx + x dx for whatever n.

for example.
Well, since the function \,f(x)=\sin x + x\, is continuous everywhere, it is Riemann integrable in any finite

interval, and we can choose any partition for it we want, for example the partition
x_0=0\,,\,x_1=\frac{n}{k}\,,\,x_2=\frac{2n}{k},...,x_k=\frac{kn}{k}=n
for the interval \,[0,n]\, , thus

\int_0^n (\sin x +x)dx=\lim_{k\to\infty}\frac{1}{k}\sum_{i=1}^k \left( \sin \frac{in}{k}+\frac{in}{k} \right)

DonAntonio
 
To add to Don Antonio's comment:

1) Partition your domain of integration [a,b] into a collection a=x0,

x1,...,xn=b .

2)Select a point xi* in each (xi-1,xi).

3)Form the sum Ʃi=1,..,Nf(xi*)(xi-xi-1)

In your case, f(xi*)=xi*+sin(xi*)
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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