Converting Cylindrical Coordinates to Orthogonal and Spherical Coordinates?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around converting cylindrical coordinates to orthogonal (Cartesian) and spherical coordinates, with participants exploring the definitions and formulas involved in these transformations. The context includes both theoretical understanding and practical application of the coordinate systems.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants confirm that orthogonal coordinates refer to Cartesian coordinates and provide the transformation formulas from cylindrical to orthogonal coordinates.
  • Participants calculate the orthogonal coordinates for the point $\left (2, \frac{\pi}{2}, -4\right )$ as $(0, 2, -4)$ and derive the spherical coordinates as $\left (2 \sqrt{5}, \frac{\pi}{2}, \arccos \left ( \frac{-2}{\sqrt{5}}\right )\right )$.
  • One participant suggests using $\operatorname{atan2}(y, x)$ instead of $\arctan \left (\frac{y}{x}\right )$ for calculating the angle $\theta$ in spherical coordinates, noting the limitations of the $\arctan$ function.
  • Another participant raises a question about calculating $\phi$ for a different cylindrical point $\left (1, -\frac{\pi}{6}, 0\right )$, specifically regarding the expression $\phi=\arctan \left (\frac{1}{0}\right )$ and its implications.
  • There is a suggestion that since $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined, $\phi$ should be concluded as $\frac{\pi}{2}$, with a note on the range of $\phi$ in spherical coordinates being [$0,\pi$].

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the methods for converting cylindrical coordinates to orthogonal and spherical coordinates, but there are discussions about the appropriate use of functions like $\arctan$ and $\operatorname{atan2}$, indicating some uncertainty and differing preferences in approach.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the definitions and implications of certain mathematical expressions, particularly regarding the handling of undefined values in trigonometric functions.

mathmari
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Hey! :o

We are given the following point in cylindrical coordinates. We have to write in orthogonal and spherical coordinates.
The point is $\left (2, \frac{\pi}{2}, -4\right )$.

First of all, do orthogonal coordinates mean cartesian coordinates?? (Wondering)

The cylindrical coordinates are of the form $(r, \theta , z)$, that are defined by $x=r \cos \theta , y=r \sin \theta , z=z$.

The orthogonal coordinates are of the form $(x, y, z)$.

$x=r \cos \theta=2 \cos \frac{\pi}{2}=0 , y=r \sin \theta =2 \sin \frac{\pi}{2}=2 , z=z=-4$

So, the orthogonal coordinates of the point are $(0, 2, -4)$.
The spherical coordinates are of the form $(\rho, \theta , \phi)$, where $\rho =\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}, \theta=\arctan \left (\frac{y}{x}\right ), \phi=\arccos \left (\frac{z}{\rho}\right )$.

$\rho=\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=\sqrt{0^2+2^2+(-4)^2}=2 \sqrt{5}, \theta=\arctan \left (\frac{y}{x}\right )=\arctan \left ( \frac{2}{0}\right ) \Rightarrow \theta=\frac{\pi}{2}, \phi=\arccos \left (\frac{z}{\rho}\right )=\arccos \left (\frac{-4}{2\sqrt{5}}\right )=\arccos \left ( \frac{-2}{\sqrt{5}}\right )$

So, the spherical coordinates of the point are $\left (2 \sqrt{5}, \frac{\pi}{2}, \arccos \left ( \frac{-2}{\sqrt{5}}\right )\right )$.
Is the formulation correct?? (Wondering)

Could I improve something?? (Wondering)
 
Last edited by a moderator:
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mathmari said:
Hey! :o

We are given the following point in cylindrical coordinates. We have to write in orthogonal and spherical coordinates.
The point is $\left (2, \frac{\pi}{2}, -4\right )$.

First of all, do orthogonal coordinates mean cartesian coordinates?? (Wondering)

The cylindrical coordinates are of the form $(r, \theta , z)$, that are defined by $x=r \cos \theta , y=r \sin \theta , z=z$.

The orthogonal coordinates are of the form $(x, y, z)$.

$x=r \cos \theta=2 \cos \frac{\pi}{2}=0 , y=r \sin \theta =2 \sin \frac{\pi}{2}=2 , z=z=-4$

So, the orthogonal coordinates of the point are $(0, 2, -4)$.
The spherical coordinates are of the form $(\rho, \theta , \phi)$, where $\rho =\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}, \theta=\arctan \left (\frac{y}{x}\right ), \phi=\arccos \left (\frac{z}{\rho}\right )$.

$\rho=\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=\sqrt{0^2+2^2+(-4)^2}=2 \sqrt{5}, \theta=\arctan \left (\frac{y}{x}\right )=\arctan \left ( \frac{2}{0}\right ) \Rightarrow \theta=\frac{\pi}{2}, \phi=\arccos \left (\frac{z}{\rho}\right )=\arccos \left (\frac{-4}{2\sqrt{5}}\right )=\arccos \left ( \frac{-2}{\sqrt{5}}\right )$

So, the spherical coordinates of the point are $\left (2 \sqrt{5}, \frac{\pi}{2}, \arccos \left ( \frac{-2}{\sqrt{5}}\right )\right )$.
Is the formulation correct?? (Wondering)

Could I improve something?? (Wondering)

Hi!

It's perfect. (Nod)

If anything, be careful with $\theta=\arctan \left (\frac{y}{x}\right )$, because it is not generally true.
Properly, it should be something like $\theta=\operatorname{atan2}(y, x)$.
That's because the range of $\arctan$ is limited to $(-\pi/2,\pi/2]$, while $\theta$ really has the full range.
 
Nice! (Happy)

I applied the formula $\rho=\sqrt{z^2+r^2},\ \ \theta=\theta , \ \ \phi=\arctan \left (\frac{r}{z}\right )$ for the point in cylindrical coordinates $\left (1, -\frac{\pi}{6}, 0\right )$.

To calculate $\phi$ do we write it as followed?? $$\phi=\arctan \left (\frac{1}{0}\right )$$
Or is there an other way to write it?? (Wondering)

Do we say: "Since it $\frac{1}{0}$ is not defined and we know that $\tan $ is not defined at $\frac{\pi}{2}$, we conclude that $\phi=\frac{\pi}{2}$." ?? (Wondering)

Is the formulation correct?? Could I improve something?? (Wondering)
 
mathmari said:
Nice! (Happy)

I applied the formula $\rho=\sqrt{z^2+r^2},\ \ \theta=\theta , \ \ \phi=\arctan \left (\frac{r}{z}\right )$ for the point in cylindrical coordinates $\left (1, -\frac{\pi}{6}, 0\right )$.

To calculate $\phi$ do we write it as followed?? $$\phi=\arctan \left (\frac{1}{0}\right )$$
Or is there an other way to write it?? (Wondering)

Do we say: "Since it $\frac{1}{0}$ is not defined and we know that $\tan $ is not defined at $\frac{\pi}{2}$, we conclude that $\phi=\frac{\pi}{2}$." ?? (Wondering)

Is the formulation correct?? Could I improve something?? (Wondering)

You should add that the range of $\phi$ in spherical coordinates is [$0,\pi$], which is why $\frac{\pi}{2}$ is the correct answer as opposed to $-\frac{\pi}{2}$. (Nerd)
 
Ok... Thank you very much! (Smile)
 

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