Cos^2(φ_1) +cos^2 (φ_2) + cos^2(φ_3) = 1 in a three dimensional cartesian system

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equation cos^2(φ_1) + cos^2(φ_2) + cos^2(φ_3) = 1 within the context of a three-dimensional Cartesian coordinate system, where φ_1, φ_2, and φ_3 represent the angles a vector makes with the x, y, and z axes, respectively.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore relationships between the angles and the coordinates of the vector, questioning the correct trigonometric functions to use for each coordinate. There are attempts to derive equations linking the angles and the vector's length, with some participants expressing confusion about the definitions and relationships involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations of the angles and their relationships being explored. Some participants have offered insights into the trigonometric relationships, while others express uncertainty about the correct setup and definitions. There is no explicit consensus yet, but productive lines of reasoning are being developed.

Contextual Notes

Participants note confusion regarding which angles to use and the relationships between the angles and the coordinates. There is also mention of the potential for misunderstanding in the application of trigonometric functions to the problem.

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Homework Statement


I seem to be stuck for an assignment that I have for one of my classes, in which we are asked to prove that cos^2(φ_1) +cos^2 (φ_2) + cos^2(φ_3) = 1 in a three dimensional cartesian system, where φ_1 ,φ_2, φ_3 are the angles that a random vector r (x,y,z) is to the x,y and z axxi respectively.

Homework Equations


Prove that cos^2(φ_1) +cos^2 (φ_2) + cos^2(φ_3) = 1.


The Attempt at a Solution


I have made various attempts at linking the angles together and forming some kind of equation but none of them lead to the solution. It just seems really random to me, maybe I'm wrong because it's so early in the morning...
 
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If phi_1 is the angle (x,y,x) makes with the x axis, then x=sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2)*cos(phi_1), yes? That's just trig. What are the other two coordinates?
 
Dick said:
If phi_1 is the angle (x,y,x) makes with the x axis, then x=sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2)*cos(phi_1), yes? That's just trig. What are the other two coordinates?

I'm guessing you mean r(x,y,z). So its got to be y=sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2)*sin(phi_2) and z=sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2)*cos(phi_3).
 
y has cosine like the others, not sine.
 
karkas said:
I'm guessing you mean r(x,y,z). So its got to be y=sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2)*sin(phi_2) and z=sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2)*cos(phi_3).

Well, I meant (x,y,z) to be the coordinates of the point. Why did you put sin in the y coordinate? sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2) is the length of the vector. cos is the ratio between the hypotenuse and the coordinate, yeah?
 
SammyS said:
y has cosine like the others, not sine.

Oh yeah my bad. I'm then guessing that it's wrong to say that cos(phi_2)=sin(phi_1).I'm not entirely sure which angles our teacher wanted us to use, therefore I'm confused. The fact is that I have formed these equations, but messing with them led me to the beginning which generally means I'm missing something.
 
SammyS said:
y has cosine like the others, not sine.

Ah, ok. Then do you understand why those things are true? If so, then compute x^2+y^2+z^2 using x=cos(phi_1)*sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2), etc.
 
SammyS said:
y has cosine like the others, not sine.

Oh, that was you SammyS. Want to take it from here??
 
Dick said:
Ah, ok. Then do you understand why those things are true? If so, then compute x^2+y^2+z^2 using x=cos(phi_1)*sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2), etc.

Ah I think I got it and I guess it's just a matter of not spotting the answer, my everlasting doom. x^2+y^2+z^2 = |z|^2
and
x^2+y^2+z^2 = [ cos^2(phi_1) + cos^2(phi_2) + cos^2(phi_3) ] * ( x^2+y^2+z^2)
= [ cos^2(phi_1) + cos^2(phi_2) + cos^2(phi_3) ] * |z|^2,
therefore we have proven it?
 
  • #10
karkas said:
Ah I think I got it and I guess it's just a matter of not spotting the answer, my everlasting doom.


x^2+y^2+z^2 = |z|^2
and
x^2+y^2+z^2 = [ cos^2(phi_1) + cos^2(phi_2) + cos^2(phi_3) ] * ( x^2+y^2+z^2)
= [ cos^2(phi_1) + cos^2(phi_2) + cos^2(phi_3) ] * |z|^2,
therefore we have proven it?

Yes.
 

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