Counterexample: Showing the Non-Continuity of a Function with Rational Values

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the continuity of a function \( f(x) \) defined on the interval \([a,b]\) with the condition that \( f(b) > f(a) \) and that the values of \( f \) at any \( x \) in the open interval \( (a,b) \) are rational. Participants are exploring whether this function can be continuous under these constraints.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are considering the implications of the intermediate value property on continuity and questioning whether the existence of irrational numbers between \( f(a) \) and \( f(b) \) affects the continuity of \( f(x) \). There are attempts to construct counterexamples to illustrate the non-continuity of the function.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their thoughts on the relationship between continuity and the intermediate value property. Some have suggested specific examples and reasoning to support the claim that the function is not continuous, while others are questioning the assumptions made in the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is a repeated emphasis on the nature of the values taken by \( f(x) \) being rational and the implications of this on the continuity of the function. Participants are also noting the potential presence of irrational numbers within the range defined by \( f(a) \) and \( f(b) \).

loli12
I was asked to show whether this is true: f(x) is defined for all x in [a,b] with f(b) > f(a) [values given]. the values of f at any x in (a,b) is rational. So, is f(x) continous?

I think this is not continuous as this seems like the question is trying to use intermediate value property to imply continuity. But I can;t think of a more proper way to proof the answer. Or am I wrong on this? Please give me some idea!
 
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Construct a counterexample.
 
loli12 said:
I was asked to show whether this is true: f(x) is defined for all x in [a,b] with f(b) > f(a) [values given]. the values of f at any x in (a,b) is rational. So, is f(x) continous?
I think this is not continuous as this seems like the question is trying to use intermediate value property to imply continuity. But I can;t think of a more proper way to proof the answer. Or am I wrong on this? Please give me some idea!


"this seems like the question is trying to use intermediate value property to imply continuity." I would have said it the other way around! If the function were continuous, then it would have the intermediate value property. Whatever f(a) and f(b) are, since f(b)> f(a) they are not the same. Does there exist an irrational number between them? What does that tell you?
 
loli12 said:
I was asked to show whether this is true: f(x) is defined for all x in [a,b] with f(b) > f(a) [values given]. the values of f at any x in (a,b) is rational. So, is f(x) continous?
I think this is not continuous as this seems like the question is trying to use intermediate value property to imply continuity. But I can;t think of a more proper way to proof the answer. Or am I wrong on this? Please give me some idea!

Right. It's not continuous. You can prove there is (are) at least an irrational number between f(a) and f(b).

Let's use [tex]\sqrt 2 < 2[/tex] as the irrational number. Put A = f(a) and B = f(b). You can find a natural number n which satisfies [tex]B - A < \frac 1 n[/tex] Then, at least one of[tex]\sqrt 2 \frac m {2n}[/tex] (where m is an integer) must be between A and B. (notice step of [tex]\sqrt 2 \frac m {2n}[/tex] is smaller than B-A.)

Then you can prove f(x) isn't continuous : If f(x) is continuous, it must pass such a [tex]\sqrt 2 \frac m {2n}[/tex] which is evidently an irrational number.

BTW you can easily prove the opposite theory: If f(x) takes only irrational numbers between [a,b], then f(x) cannot be continuous.
 
Last edited:

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