Hi all,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I have a little problem concerning the coupling of a fermion to CP^N (or better a 2D scalar O(3) model). Its not a mathematical type of problem. I just read on

"The coupling of fermions to the three-dimensional noncommutative $CP^{N-1}$ model: minimal and supersymmetric extensions"

http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/hep-th/pdf/0402/0402013v2.pdf

The Lagrangian of this theory is written down in (2.1) and I am a bit lost as of interpreting this formula. There are three indegredients: 1. a scalar field, 2. a fermionic field and 3. a gauge field. Now, a scalar field represents a spin-0 field, right? The fermionic field is of spin 1/2. But now what is the gauge field? The scalar field may have some internal symmetry like O(3) but this won't affect the Lagrangian. I just don't understand what the gauge field is in this case.

Could somebody explain that to me? A big thanks in advance!!

Blue2script

PS: Also, of what physical interest is the scalar model besides being a nice toy model to study field effects? What could be the interpretation of a scalar field?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Coupling fermions to a scalar field: Interpretation problem

Loading...

Similar Threads - Coupling fermions scalar | Date |
---|---|

A Coupling constants with fractional dimensions | Jan 17, 2018 |

I LS-Coupling: intuition why 2p^2 has no singlet P? | Nov 9, 2017 |

Exchange symmetry when adding angular momentum and in LS coupling? | Oct 24, 2014 |

Are boson fields the adjoint of the fermionic field they couple to? | Mar 2, 2012 |

Fermions with no mass, and helicity coupling. | May 2, 2010 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**