- #1
vitaniarain
- 11
- 0
hello!
just a quick question, does the covariant derivative of the metric give zero even when the indices(one of the indices) of the metric are(is) raised?
also another question not entirely related, does the covariant deriv. of exp(2 phi) where phi is the field, also give zero or not necessarily? thanks
just a quick question, does the covariant derivative of the metric give zero even when the indices(one of the indices) of the metric are(is) raised?
also another question not entirely related, does the covariant deriv. of exp(2 phi) where phi is the field, also give zero or not necessarily? thanks