D/dx[int(0,x) e^(-t^2) dt] : two methods, two answers

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the differentiation of the integral ∫ from 0 to x of e^(-t^2) dt, exploring two different methods to derive the result. Participants examine the implications of each method and the correctness of the answers obtained, focusing on the application of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One method suggests that the derivative results in exp(-x^2) - 1, based on the relationship between integral and antiderivative.
  • The second method claims the result is (1/2)sqrt(pi)*erf(x) and that its derivative is exp(-x^2).
  • Some participants assert that the second answer is correct and request clarification on the first method's derivation.
  • One participant challenges the formula used in the first method, suggesting it is incorrect and refers to the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus for clarification.
  • A participant acknowledges a mistake in their understanding after receiving feedback.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the correctness of the two methods, with some asserting the second method is correct while others defend the first method. The discussion remains unresolved as to which answer is definitively correct.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus but do not reach a consensus on its application in this context. There are indications of missing assumptions or misunderstandings regarding the differentiation of the integral.

nomadreid
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There are two methods to take d/dx [ ∫t=0x exp(-t^2) dt].

First method: using the relationship of integral and antiderivative, one gets
(exp(-t^2) , from t = 0 to x, so exp(-x^2) - 1.

Second method: the integral is (1/2)sqrt(pi)*erf(t) from 0 to x, which is (1/2)sqrt(pi)*erf(x), and the derivative of this is exp(-x^2).

So, which answer is correct, and what is wrong with the other method?

(Wolfram alpha favors the second answer, but I have another source that favors the first answer.)
 
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nomadreid said:
First method: using the relationship of integral and antiderivative, one gets (exp(-t^2) , from t = 0 to x, so exp(-x^2) - 1.

The second answer is right. Can you show how you got this so we can help point out your mistake?
 
jgens said:
The second answer is right. Can you show how you got this so we can help point out your mistake?

Thank you, gladly. I am using the idea that d(∫abf(t)dt)/dx = f(x)|ab; here a=0 , b = x, and f(t)= exp(-t^2).
 
Ah, I see my mistake. Thank you very much, gjens.
 

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